Questions couples ask us, answered in one place

IUI or Intra Uterine Insemination is the first line of treatment offered to patients with ovulatory dysfunction or mild issues with sperm motility and sperm count. During the IUI cycle, semen samples are processed in the lab and injected into a female partner using a special catheter.

Infertility specialist orders a few basic test to assess the reason for infertility. If the preliminary test report come out to be normal, patients may be advised to try timed intercourse or IUI treatment.

Infertility doctors are specialist who deal only with infertility. They have typically undergone specific training and or fellowship in reproductive medicine. They have more experience in cases of infertility and are well aware of the advances in IVF and assisted reproductive technology treatment.

IUI treatment usually does not have any side effects, however some patients may show symptoms like hot flushes, headache, nausea and breast tenderness due to the fertility drugs. These symptoms and side effects usually subside after the IUI cycle.

IUI treatment is inclusive of the cost of medication during the stimulated IUI cycle, cost of follicular monitoring, cost of the injection for triggering rupture of the follicle as well as semen processing charges. The cost of IUI in Indore Infertility Clinic is appx INR 8500. If IUI is advised with Donor sperms, then the cost of Donor sperms needs to be separately borne.

Unexplained infertility affects close to 20% of Infertile couples. When all the reports of the couple comes out to be normal and yet the patient cannot conceive, it is termed as Unexplained Infertility. However, patients should always consider laparoscopic evaluation before reaching this diagnosis.

From time of first consultation to pregnancy couples should at least give four to six months. For some couples who are in good general health and aged less than 35, it may take just two to three months. However some couples especially where the maternal age is more than 35 and or male partner has poor semen parameters, the time to pregnancy could be close to six months.

Your consultant IVF specialist at Indore Infertility Clinic would be Dr. Gajendra Singh Tomar. He specialises in IVF for advance maternal age, recurrent implantation failure, high risk pregnancies as well as surrogacy.

Fertility Drugs are researched over years and show no significant rise in abnormality in the resulting baby. Nor does the ultrasound waves cause any abnormality. IUI is very safe if done under proper guidance from good IVF doctor.

No. Gender selection through pre implantation embryo biopsy as well as prenatal testing for gender is a punishable crime in India. No IVF/IUI centre in India will test the gender of the embryo before embryo transfer.

Blastocyst culture is the laboratory process of growing embryos for several days after fertilisation until they may reach the blastocyst stage. This allows the embryology team to observe embryo development before transfer or cryopreservation.

Blastocyst formation commonly occurs around day 5 or day 6 after fertilisation, although embryos can develop at different rates.

No. Some embryos stop developing before reaching the blastocyst stage. The number of blastocysts obtained varies between individuals and IVF cycles.

Extended culture provides additional information about embryo development and can help the embryology team identify embryos that continue developing to the blastocyst stage.

Yes. Blastocysts considered suitable for cryopreservation can be frozen using established embryo-freezing techniques and may be used in a future frozen embryo transfer.

When preimplantation genetic testing is included in an IVF treatment plan, embryo biopsy is generally performed at the blastocyst stage according to the fertility clinic and laboratory protocol.

No. Reaching the blastocyst stage is an important developmental milestone, but implantation and pregnancy depend on several embryo, uterine and individual factors.

The suitability of extended embryo culture depends on the individual IVF situation, including the number and development of embryos and the recommendations of the fertility specialist and embryologist.

If no embryo reaches a stage considered suitable for transfer or freezing, the fertility team will discuss the laboratory findings and possible next steps with the patient.

Blastocyst culture itself does not provide gender selection. In India, sex selection is prohibited by law, including selection based on prenatal or preimplantation testing for sex.

No. Egg freezing stores unfertilised eggs. Embryo pooling stores embryos created after fertilisation.

No. Pooling means building your embryo inventory. Each embryo stays separately identified.

There is no fixed number. The plan is reviewed after each collection.

No. It aims to increase the number available. It does not correct embryo abnormalities.

It may allow more transfer attempts. Better live birth outcomes are not proven for every patient.

No. Transfer number is a separate decision. Single embryo transfer is often appropriate.

No. Genetic testing and two stimulations in one menstrual cycle are separate clinical decisions.

Yes. Discuss this with your specialist. Your health, available embryos and timing guide the decision.

No. FET uses embryos already stored from a previous IVF or ICSI cycle.

No. A fresh transfer uses an embryo from the current IVF cycle. FET uses a previously frozen embryo.

Preparation often takes a few weeks. The timing depends on your cycle, medicines and monitoring.

The procedure is usually brief. You may feel mild discomfort. Anaesthesia is not usually needed.

The number is agreed before transfer. Single embryo transfer is often advised to reduce twin risk.

Yes. Walking and emptying your bladder do not make the embryo fall out. Strict bed rest is unnecessary.

Use the date given by your clinic, often around two weeks after transfer. Testing early can mislead.

No. The choice depends on your clinical situation. FET is not automatically the best option for everyone.

IVF is a type of treatment done to help infertile patients to get pregnant and deliver healthy babies. During IVF the process of fertilization is done outside the human body within an IVF lab.

IVF cost is dependent on many factors like the patient’s age, the underlying cause of infertility, and response to ovarian stimulation. Typically IVF cost ranges from 1 lakh to 1 lakh 50 thousand in Indore. The actual cost can only be calculated after assessing the patient’s reports.

It is very important to assess the reason for IVF failure before trying another cycle. IVF can fail due to poor quality gametes (both poor sperm and poor eggs), failure to produce Blastocyst, failure of implantation, or miscarriage after implantation. Knowing the reason for failure can warrant corrective action at each step. However, in case of very advanced maternal age or very low AMH with multiple failures, your IVF specialist may advise you to think about donor oocytes or donor eggs.

During an IVF process the health of the baby born is completely dependent on the health of embryo and the course of pregnancy. Instead of being fixated on chances of abnormality, it is best to understand the following things: IVF treatment is not an elective treatment, it should be indicated and hence we should know that only couples who cannot conceive naturally will undergo IVF. So since there is no alternative to IVF our focus should be on what can be done to make it safer: Quality of eggs and sperm depend on your lifestyle and age. So maintain a healthy lifestyle and don’t be too late. Choose a good IVF center so that you know that they have a good IVF lab which consistently delivers best IVF success rate. Choose to transfer only one embryo, this will ensure an uncomplicated pregnancy. Monitor pregnancy well and stay away from stress.

IVF treatment cost is inclusive of the cost of follicular monitoring, cost of drugs for stimulating the ovaries, cost of semen processing and freezing, cost of disposables and media used in the IVF lab, and above all cost of the time that an IVF specialist doctors and embryologist gives for your case. Typically IVF treatment cost less in Indore as compared to metros however since the cost of IVF drugs and Media are costlier in non-metro cities because of transportation charges, the cost of IVF cycle in Indore is typically about 15% cheaper than in Metros. An IVF cycle can cost anywhere between 1 Lac, to 1 Lac 50 thousand if opted with self gametes.

Average number of eggs for patients under 35 years of age with regular ovarian reserve is about 8 to 10. So per IVF cycle we expect on an average 8 to 10 eggs. However for patients above 35 years of age and or poor ovarian reserve (low AMH) the average number of eggs per cycle could be as low as 5 or less.

If IVF has resulted in successful pregnancy, and progressed to the second trimester then the chances of taking home a healthy baby is very high, actually it is as high as chances in normal pregnancy.

After successful implantation of IVF embryos which is detected by bHCG blood test, the pregnancy is monitored by ultrasound to assess fetal heart beat. The chances of miscarriage in IVF pregnancy before establishment of cardiac activity is slightly higher (before 8 weeks). However the miscarriage rate after establishment of cardiac activity is similar to that of natural pregnancy.

Fertility Drugs are researched over years and show no significant rise in abnormality in the resulting baby. Nor does the ultrasound waves cause any abnormality. IUI is very safe if done under proper guidance from good IVF doctor.

Multiple pregnancies like twin pregnancy is a result of transferring more than one embryo to the uterus. Any good IVF centre will transfer only single good blastocyst which will result in a single pregnancy. However in rare incidences even a single blastocyst / embryo can result in a monozygotic twinning (identical twins).

IVF doctors will first get a few basic investigations done to assess the reason for infertility. Based on the outcome of the result, doctors will decide on the course of treatment. For male partner the investigation ordered is Semen Analysis. Female partner is advised baseline ultrasound to assess uterine cavity and or follicular monitoring.

Ovarian stimulation involves using hormonal medicines to stimulate the ovaries so that mature follicles and eggs can develop.

Ovarian stimulation may be suggested when there are problems with ovulation and in selected infertility treatment situations.

Medicines used for ovulation induction may include clomiphene citrate, hMG, FSH, Gn-RH analogues, metformin and bromocriptine depending on the individual treatment plan.

The treatment described here usually starts around day three or four of the menstrual cycle and may continue for approximately eight to ten days.

Monitoring may include blood tests and vaginal ultrasounds to assess the response to medication and follicular development.

Possible effects include bloating, breast tenderness, cramping, pelvic discomfort, fatigue and headaches. A rare complication is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome.

Superovulation is a more intensive form of ovulation induction that uses gonadotropins or other medicines to stimulate the development of multiple eggs.

Ovulation generally occurs within approximately 24 to 36 hours after hCG administration, depending on the individual treatment plan.

Follicular Monitoring is also known as Ovulation Study or Ovulation Profile. It is the assessment of the process of follicle growth and ovulation over a period of few days by means of sonography.

Primarily follicular monitoring is advised to detect ovulation. It is used to confirm that ovulation is occurring normally and for timed intercourse, and to monitor the response of ovarian stimulation drugs during IUI, IVF and ICSI.

Ovulation study is best performed by transvaginal ultrasound. In some cases, abdominal USG can be performed but it is not optimal. Transvaginal ultrasound is more accurate and does not need a full bladder.

A follicular scan usually takes 5–10 minutes.

Transvaginal Sonography may be done every day or every alternate day depending on the rate of growth of the follicle.

Follicular monitoring is preferably done by transvaginal sonography. It can cause some discomfort, but usually it is not painful.

No, you do not need to hold urine for follicular monitoring. As it is usually done by transvaginal sonography, you should pass urine and empty your bladder before the sonography. Only if an abdominal sonography is needed, you might be asked to hold urine.

Yes, you can eat before follicular monitoring. No, it is not a fasting test.

Follicular monitoring is done to check the growth of follicles in your ovaries. It is done to check for ovulation with or without treatment, in cases of ovulation induction, during ovarian stimulation in IVF cycles, and to plan IUI or timed intercourse.

Follicular monitoring is the assessment of ovarian follicle development over days to observe their growth and development during a woman's menstrual cycle. It is done by ultrasonography. The size of follicles in the ovaries is checked at each scan and noted down on a chart to observe their growth.

During a menstrual cycle, Day 1–5 usually shows multiple small follicles measuring 6–8 mm. On Day 6–7, at least one dominant follicle is usually around 10 mm. During Day 8–12, the dominant follicle grows approximately 2–3 mm each day and reaches around 20 mm by the 11th–12th day. During Day 12–16, the mature dominant follicle ruptures and its remaining shell is seen as the corpus luteum.

Follicular monitoring can be performed several times during a cycle. Day 2–6 may be used to look for antral follicle count and cysts, Day 11/12 to look for dominant follicle growth, and Day 12–16 to look for maturation and rupture. If ovulation is not seen till Day 16, monitoring can be extended for 1–2 days.

The clinic page states that HSG is best performed immediately after menstruation has completely stopped, typically around Day 7 to Day 9 of the cycle. It should not be performed close to ovulation.

Yes. HSG can show abnormalities in the shape or structure of the uterus and may identify findings such as polyps, fibroids, adhesions, septum or other abnormalities within the uterine cavity.

A normal HSG may show a normally shaped uterus, normal-looking fallopian tubes without obvious scarring or damage, and contrast dye flowing through the tubes and spilling normally into the abdominal cavity.

An abnormal result may show that contrast does not pass through one or both fallopian tubes, suggesting possible blockage, scarring or malformation. It may also show uterine abnormalities such as a septum, polyps or fibroids.

HSG can show certain uterine cavity abnormalities, including growths such as fibroids, particularly when they affect the shape or outline of the uterine cavity.

Yes. Polyps inside the uterine cavity may appear as an abnormality on HSG and may require further evaluation depending on the findings.

HSG may show abnormalities caused by adhesions inside the uterus. Further evaluation may be recommended by the fertility specialist depending on the findings.

HSG is primarily used to evaluate the uterus and fallopian tube patency. The source page lists endometriosis among possible causes associated with blocked fallopian tubes, but HSG itself is not a complete diagnostic test for endometriosis.

Hormone studies are blood tests that measure levels of specific hormones involved in fertility, ovulation, implantation and reproductive function.

Hormone tests can help the fertility specialist evaluate hormonal factors that may contribute to infertility and help identify suitable treatment options.

Depending on the clinical situation, tests may include Estradiol, FSH, LH, Progesterone and AMH. Other hormones such as androgens, prolactin and thyroid-related hormones may also be evaluated when indicated.

Follicle Stimulating Hormone stimulates the development of an ovum or egg.

Luteinizing Hormone stimulates the release of the egg from the ovarian follicle and helps in ovulation.

Progesterone stabilizes the uterine lining for implantation of a fertilized egg and supports early pregnancy.

Anti-Mullerian Hormone is a hormone used to provide information about ovarian reserve, or the approximate number of eggs remaining in the ovary.

AMH can provide information about ovarian reserve and may be used alone or together with other tests as an indicator of fertility.

Yes. Abnormal levels of hormones such as androgens, prolactin or thyroid-related hormones can interfere with ovulation and reproductive function.

Yes. Hormone levels change throughout the menstrual cycle, so certain hormone tests need to be measured at specific times. Your doctor or nurse will tell you when to have each test.

The clinic information states that hormone tests such as TSH and FSH are best done on an empty stomach. Patients should confirm fasting requirements with their doctor or laboratory.

Normal hormone levels can vary by laboratory. Results should therefore be interpreted using the laboratory-specific reference range and discussed with your doctor.

The clinic information states that most test results are available the same day, although timing can depend on the specific test and laboratory.

Hormone results should be interpreted in the context of your menstrual cycle, symptoms, fertility history and the laboratory's reference range. Discuss your report with your doctor or fertility specialist.

No. Hormone testing is ordered when clinically indicated, such as in situations involving irregular menses, rapid weight gain, breast secretions or reduced ovarian reserve.

The clinic information refers to a Quick Reference Chart for the cost of Female Fertility Hormone Evaluation, including AMH, FSH and E2. Current charges should be confirmed directly with the clinic.

3D/4D ultrasound is an advanced ultrasound imaging technique that provides detailed images and can be used for assessment of the uterus and endometrial cavity.

Ultrasound can identify problems or irregularities that may affect conception and can provide information that helps the fertility specialist plan treatment.

It is an advanced ultrasound assessment used to evaluate the uterus and endometrial cavity, particularly during fertility and pre-conception evaluation.

Yes. 3D ultrasound is particularly useful for identifying abnormalities in the uterus and evaluating the uterine cavity.

3D ultrasound can help evaluate the uterine cavity for endometrial polyps, which are benign growths of the uterine lining.

Yes. 3D ultrasound can help evaluate the uterus and uterine cavity for fibroids.

3D/4D scanning can help identify issues that might affect fertility or possible causes of recurrent pregnancy loss.

Endometrial volume can be a useful criterion for predicting embryo implantation success and pregnancy rate in patients undergoing IVF.

Yes. The information obtained through 3D/4D assessment can assist the specialist with treatment planning.

The 3D/4D assessment of the endometrial cavity can be performed using a transvaginal sonogram.

Yes. 3D ultrasound is particularly useful for identifying abnormalities in the uterus and evaluating the uterine cavity.

The available source content does not provide a fixed price for the procedure. Current charges should be confirmed directly with the clinic.

Female infertility evaluation may include a detailed medical and menstrual history, transvaginal ultrasound, ovarian reserve assessment and evaluation of the fallopian tubes when indicated. Additional tests depend on the patient's individual history and findings.

A transvaginal ultrasound uses an ultrasound probe placed in the vagina to obtain detailed images of the uterus and ovaries. It can help identify uterine abnormalities, ovarian cysts and developing follicles.

AMH or Anti-Müllerian Hormone is a blood test that can be used as a marker of ovarian reserve. It provides information about ovarian response but does not by itself determine whether a woman can become pregnant.

Antral follicle count is performed using transvaginal ultrasound to count small follicles in the ovaries. It is one of the ultrasound-based markers used to assess ovarian reserve.

HSG stands for hysterosalpingography. It is an X-ray based investigation that uses contrast material to examine the uterine cavity and determine whether the fallopian tubes are open.

Not necessarily. The need for tubal testing depends on the patient's history, symptoms, age, previous treatment and the fertility specialist's assessment.

Ultrasound cannot by itself diagnose every cause of infertility. It is an important part of fertility evaluation and can provide information about the uterus, ovaries, follicles and some structural abnormalities.

No. Ovarian reserve tests such as AMH provide information about ovarian reserve and treatment response, but they do not by themselves determine whether a woman can or cannot conceive.

If the initial fertility evaluation does not identify a clear cause, the fertility specialist reviews the complete history of both partners and discusses appropriate next steps based on the individual situation.

For women younger than 35, infertility evaluation is generally considered after 12 months of trying to conceive without pregnancy. For women aged 35 or older, evaluation is generally considered after 6 months, with earlier evaluation appropriate in some circumstances.

Yes. Earlier evaluation may be appropriate when there is a known medical condition or history associated with infertility, or when the fertility specialist considers earlier assessment appropriate.

There is no single test that can completely determine fertility. Female fertility evaluation looks at several factors including ovulation, ovarian reserve, the uterus and fallopian tubes, along with the fertility evaluation of the male partner when applicable.

Male infertility evaluation may include a detailed medical and reproductive history, semen analysis, hormonal testing and, when clinically indicated, scrotal ultrasound, genetic testing or specialized sperm investigations.

Semen analysis is a laboratory test used to evaluate semen and sperm characteristics including sperm concentration, motility, morphology and semen volume.

Semen analysis provides important information about sperm production and sperm quality and is commonly used as part of the initial male fertility evaluation.

Follow the laboratory's instructions regarding sexual abstinence, sample collection and handling. The exact preparation requirements may vary between laboratories.

Sperm motility refers to the ability of sperm to move. Semen analysis evaluates the percentage and pattern of sperm movement.

Sperm morphology evaluates the size and shape of sperm under laboratory examination and provides additional information about sperm characteristics.

Hormonal problems can affect sperm production in some men. Blood tests such as FSH, LH and testosterone may be recommended when a hormonal factor is suspected.

Not necessarily. A specialist may recommend scrotal ultrasound when symptoms, examination findings or semen results indicate that imaging could provide useful information.

Genetic testing may be considered in selected men, particularly when there are severe abnormalities in sperm production or other clinical findings suggesting a possible genetic factor.

Sperm DNA fragmentation testing evaluates DNA damage within sperm. It may be considered in selected fertility situations depending on the clinical assessment.

Not necessarily. Semen parameters can vary and a single result may not provide the complete picture. Your fertility specialist may recommend repeat testing or additional investigations when appropriate.

Treatment depends on the underlying cause. Depending on the findings, management may include medical treatment, surgical evaluation, lifestyle measures or assisted reproductive techniques.

Several lifestyle and environmental factors may influence reproductive health. Your fertility specialist can discuss individual factors that may be relevant to your situation.

Male fertility evaluation may be recommended when a couple has difficulty conceiving or when there are symptoms, medical conditions or a history suggesting a possible fertility concern.

The time required depends on the tests being performed. A routine semen analysis may be completed relatively quickly, while hormonal, imaging, genetic and specialized investigations may require additional time.

No. Some sperm are alive but do not move. Vitality testing helps distinguish living nonmoving sperm from dead sperm.

No. Sperm count measures how many sperm are present. HOS assesses sperm membrane function.

No. DNA fragmentation tests assess DNA damage. HOS measures a different sperm property.

The test is performed on a semen sample in the laboratory. It does not require a procedure on your body.

No. It is used when the semen findings or treatment plan make vitality assessment useful.

In selected cases, a modified HOS method can assist selection. The embryologist decides which method is appropriate.

Sometimes. Semen findings vary, and collection or handling can affect the result.

No. A single result cannot answer that. A specialist reviews the full findings and treatment options.

Semen analysis is a laboratory test used to evaluate semen and sperm characteristics. It commonly assesses semen volume, sperm concentration, sperm motility and sperm morphology.

Semen analysis is commonly performed as part of a male fertility evaluation. It provides information about sperm production and important sperm characteristics.

Depending on the laboratory and test requested, semen analysis may evaluate semen volume, sperm concentration, sperm motility, sperm morphology and, when indicated, sperm vitality or other parameters.

A semen sample is generally collected according to the instructions provided by the fertility clinic or laboratory. The laboratory will explain the appropriate collection procedure before testing.

The recommended period of sexual abstinence can vary according to laboratory instructions. Follow the specific instructions provided by your fertility specialist or testing laboratory.

Some laboratories allow home collection if their specific requirements are followed. Ask the laboratory about its collection, transportation and timing instructions before collecting the sample at home.

Sperm concentration refers to the number of sperm present in a specific volume of semen. It is one of the important parameters assessed during semen analysis.

Sperm motility refers to sperm movement. The laboratory evaluates how many sperm are moving and may classify their movement according to laboratory standards.

Sperm morphology refers to the size and shape of sperm cells. It is evaluated as one part of the semen analysis.

Sperm vitality indicates the proportion of sperm that are alive in the semen sample. It may be assessed when clinically indicated.

Not necessarily. Semen parameters can vary, and an individual abnormal result does not by itself determine the complete fertility status of a man or couple. The results should be interpreted by a fertility specialist in the appropriate clinical context.

Yes. Semen parameters may vary between samples. Depending on the result and clinical situation, a fertility specialist may recommend repeating the analysis.

The time required depends on the laboratory and the tests included. Basic semen analysis can generally be processed within a relatively short period, while specialized testing may require additional time.

If semen parameters are outside the expected range, the fertility specialist may review your medical history and examination and may recommend repeat semen analysis or additional hormonal, imaging, genetic or specialized investigations.

Yes. Semen analysis is commonly used during the evaluation of male fertility and may be performed before selecting an appropriate fertility treatment.

TESA stands for Testicular Sperm Aspiration. A fine needle is used to aspirate sperm-containing tissue directly from the testicle so that sperm can be examined and, when suitable, used for assisted reproduction.

PESA stands for Percutaneous Epididymal Sperm Aspiration. A fine needle is used to retrieve sperm from the epididymis, particularly in selected cases where sperm production is present but sperm cannot reach the ejaculate.

TESA or PESA may be considered for selected men with azoospermia, obstructive causes of male infertility, previous vasectomy or situations where usable sperm cannot be obtained through a conventional semen sample.

PESA retrieves sperm from the epididymis, while TESA retrieves sperm-containing tissue directly from the testicle. The appropriate method depends on the underlying diagnosis and specialist assessment.

Yes. When viable sperm are successfully retrieved and considered suitable by the fertility laboratory, they may be used for ICSI as part of an IVF treatment cycle.

The procedure is performed with appropriate local or other anesthesia according to the clinical plan. Some temporary discomfort, tenderness or swelling may occur after the procedure.

Recovery varies between individuals and depends on the procedure and clinical circumstances. Your specialist will provide specific instructions about rest, activity and follow-up after sperm retrieval.

If usable sperm are not identified, the fertility specialist may discuss alternative sperm-retrieval approaches or other reproductive options depending on the underlying cause and the couple's treatment plan.

Appropriately collected and stored sperm may be frozen and later used for assisted reproduction when the fertility laboratory confirms that the sample is suitable.

No. Sperm retrieval is intended to obtain sperm for assisted reproduction. Pregnancy depends on several additional factors, including sperm and egg quality, embryo development, age and reproductive health.

Erectile dysfunction (ED) is when a male has problems in maintaining an erection during sexual activity. It at times is synonymous to impotence.

The source page states that approximately 1 in 5 males experience some degree of Erectile Dysfunction and that its occurrence increases with age.

No. Men suffering from ED usually have a normal libido. In ED, the body does not respond to stimulation and an erection is not attained despite the desire.

ED is mainly diagnosed on the basis of the history provided. Tests and investigations are performed to find the cause of ED.

The source page mentions Serum Testosterone and Prolactin, Complete Blood Count, Blood Sugar Levels, Cholesterol and Lipid Profile.

An ECG may be required when there are multiple high-risk factors such as high blood pressure or diabetes. The source page notes that ED is associated with an increased risk of heart problems and can sometimes be an early marker of heart disease.

Colour Doppler Ultrasound is used to assess blood flow to the penis and look for abnormalities such as thickening, scarring and vascular leaks.

Treatment depends on the cause and may include lifestyle changes, counselling and psychotherapy, oral medication, topical creams, injections, extracorporeal shock wave therapy, vacuum erection pumps, surgery and penile implants.

Yes. Depression, lack of self-esteem, stress and anxiety can cause ED on their own or worsen ED that has an obvious medical cause.

The source page recommends exercise, maintaining a healthy weight, a heart-healthy diet, controlling blood pressure, preventing or treating diabetes early, avoiding smoking and illicit drugs, moderating alcohol, reducing stress, reviewing medicines and seeking help early when the problem is consistent.

Ejaculation which is not under control and occurs either before or shortly after penetration is called Premature Ejaculation or PE.

Yes. The source page describes Premature Ejaculation as ejaculation that occurs involuntarily before the person wishes it.

In most cases there is no obvious cause. Increasing age, anxiety, stress, depression, hormonal imbalance, trauma, medication side effects, excessive tobacco or alcohol use and illicit drug usage may contribute.

Diagnosis is mainly by medical history and clinical evaluation. Tests may be performed to rule out systemic disorders such as Hypertension, Diabetes and hormonal disturbances.

Depending on the individual situation, treatment may include reassurance, counselling, behavioral therapy and relaxation therapy. Certain medicines or sensation-altering products may also be used under specialist supervision.

The source page mentions medicines such as Clomipramine and Paroxetine, as well as Lignocaine-impregnated gels, sprays or condoms. It also notes that medical treatment should generally be for a limited duration and under direct supervision of an Andrologist.

Medical treatments can have side effects. The source page therefore recommends that therapy involving medicines be used for a short duration and under direct supervision of an Andrologist.

A varicocele is an enlargement of the veins within the scrotum. It is commonly found on the left side and may be associated with male infertility or other testicular concerns.

Yes. Varicocele can be associated with impaired sperm production and abnormal semen parameters, which is why it may be identified during a male infertility evaluation.

Diagnosis commonly begins with medical history and physical examination. The scrotum may be examined while standing and during a Valsalva manoeuvre. Colour Doppler ultrasound may be used when the diagnosis is uncertain.

Colour Doppler ultrasound can evaluate the spermatic veins and blood flow and can help confirm a varicocele when physical examination findings are uncertain.

No. Physical examination can identify many clinically significant varicoceles. Doppler ultrasound is particularly useful when examination is inconclusive or when additional assessment is required.

Semen analysis is commonly used when fertility is a concern to evaluate sperm concentration, motility and morphology.

No. Not every varicocele needs treatment. The decision depends on symptoms, fertility findings, testicular changes and the overall clinical assessment.

Some men with varicocele experience a dull or aching scrotal discomfort, particularly after prolonged standing or physical activity.

Symptoms, clinical grade, semen parameters, testicular size or growth and the patient's fertility goals are considered before deciding on management.

DFI stands for DNA Fragmentation Index. It is a sperm function test that measures the integrity of DNA present in the sperm's head and estimates the proportion of sperm with fragmented DNA.

DFI testing provides information about sperm DNA integrity that is not directly assessed by routine semen analysis. It may be considered when evaluating male infertility, unexplained infertility or selected IVF-related problems.

No. Routine semen analysis generally evaluates sperm concentration, motility and morphology. DFI specifically evaluates sperm DNA fragmentation and therefore provides different information about sperm quality.

The clinic states that men with abnormal semen analysis may be candidates for DFI testing. Men with normal semen analyses who have experienced unexplained IVF failure may also be evaluated when high DFI is suspected.

Yes. The clinic explains that sperm DNA fragmentation has little or nothing to do with the parameters measured during routine semen analysis, so DNA damage may be present even when conventional semen parameters appear normal.

At Indore Infertility Clinic, DFI is tested using the Sperm Chromatin Dispersion (SCD) assay. Controlled DNA denaturation and laboratory reagents are used to process the sperm, after which the cells are viewed under a microscope. Normal sperm produce a halo, while fragmented sperm are identified by the absence of a halo.

The clinic states that the DFI test takes approximately 3–4 hours to perform. Another section states that the report typically takes approximately 4–5 hours.

The clinic describes less than 15% sperm DNA damage as normal and associates this level with excellent fertility potential.

The clinic describes 15–30% fragmented DNA as borderline DFI. It recommends discussing the result with an IVF specialist to understand possible ways of improving sperm quality.

According to the clinic, 30% or more fragmented sperm indicates high DFI and reduced fertility potential. Such cases may require further male fertility evaluation and may be considered for ICSI with specialised sperm selection.

Routine freezing stores larger sperm populations. Rare sperm freezing uses methods suited to very small numbers.

Single sperm preservation is possible with specialised methods. Suitability depends on the sperm and laboratory assessment.

Sometimes, a detailed search finds rare sperm. If none are found, a specialist reviews further evaluation or retrieval.

No. Recovery and survival vary with the sample, freezing method and carrier. No method guarantees full recovery.

Very small numbers are generally reserved for ICSI. IUI usually requires many more motile sperm.

No. It preserves sperm already available. It does not improve their DNA or chromosomes.

Possibly. Additional samples may help build a reserve if more usable sperm can be found.

Discuss the permitted storage period, consent requirements and renewal fees with the clinic before freezing.

STI testing involves a confidential consultation followed by simple diagnostic procedures such as a blood draw, urine sample, or swab collection depending on the suspected infections.

Yes. All patient consultations, medical records, and diagnostic test results are handled with the strictest standards of medical privacy and confidentiality.

Screening ensures there are no hidden infections that could cause inflammation, disrupt embryo implantation, lead to tubal damage, or cause complications during pregnancy.

Most bacterial STIs (such as Chlamydia, Gonorrhea, and Syphilis) can be completely cured with appropriate antibiotics. Viral infections can be effectively managed with medical care.

Different infections require different window periods to be detected accurately. A doctor can advise you on the ideal timing following any potential exposure.

No. Many sexually transmitted infections are 'silent,' meaning they cause no visible symptoms initially, which is why routine screening is vital.

Yes, if an infection is diagnosed, both sexual partners must undergo treatment simultaneously to prevent passing the infection back and forth.

Generally, standard STI blood tests do not require fasting, but your doctor will provide specific instructions if any additional general blood work is required.

Most standard diagnostic results are available within a few days, after which a follow-up consultation is scheduled to discuss findings.

You can book a confidential appointment directly through our website booking portal or by contacting our clinic reception desk.

Embryo donation involves transferring a donated embryo to the uterus of the intended recipient as part of a planned fertility treatment cycle.

It may be considered by individuals or couples for whom treatment using their own eggs and sperm is not suitable or has limited chances of success.

The uterus is prepared for transfer, a suitable donated embryo is thawed and the embryo is transferred into the uterus using a thin catheter.

No. In donor egg IVF, donor eggs are used to create embryos as part of the recipient's treatment. With embryo donation, an already-created embryo is donated for transfer.

The genetic relationship depends on the source of the donated embryo. Patients should discuss embryo origin and available information with their fertility specialist.

Treatment outcome can be influenced by embryo quality, uterine health, age, medical history and other individual treatment factors.

The cost varies according to the clinic, treatment plan, medications, laboratory services and other applicable charges. A clinic-specific estimate should be obtained before treatment.

After embryo transfer, the patient follows the fertility team's instructions and returns for pregnancy testing at the recommended time.

IVF with donor sperm is a fertility treatment in which the female partner's eggs are fertilised using sperm obtained from a registered sperm bank instead of sperm from the male partner. The resulting embryo can then be transferred to the female partner or frozen for later use.

IVF with donor sperm may be considered in selected situations such as definitive azoospermia when sperm cannot be retrieved, failure of TESA or Micro TESE, certain known genetic or chromosomal abnormalities, and for single women wishing to have children.

Azoospermia means that sperm are absent from the semen. In cases where sperm cannot be retrieved surgically or after appropriate treatment, donor sperm may be considered as a fertility treatment option.

The IVF process is generally similar to a regular IVF cycle. The main difference is that donor sperm is used for fertilisation instead of sperm from the male partner.

After the eggs are collected during the IVF cycle, they are fertilised in the IVF laboratory using sperm obtained from a registered sperm bank. The resulting embryos are then cultured and monitored before transfer or freezing.

According to the source page, donor sperm is obtained through registered sperm banks that provide donor samples to registered ART clinics.

Registered sperm banks provide donor profiles and unique codes associated with donor samples. Information such as physical characteristics and educational background may be available as part of the donor profile.

According to the source page, sperm donations are anonymous and donors are recruited by registered ART banks. The source states that the donor does not know which couple used the sample.

The source page does not provide a specific numerical success percentage for IVF with donor sperm. It explains that donor sperm is typically obtained from younger men with good physical health and that good-quality sperm may contribute to good-quality embryos.

Yes. The resulting embryo can be transferred to the female partner or frozen for use at a later time, depending on the treatment plan.

IVF with donor sperm involves the usual medical considerations associated with an IVF cycle, including ovarian stimulation, egg retrieval and embryo transfer. Treatment-specific risks should be discussed with the fertility specialist.

The source page states that donor sperm from a registered ART bank costs approximately ₹15,000 to ₹20,000, depending on the blood group and profile of the sperm donor. This cost is separate from the IVF treatment cost.

According to the source page, sperm samples are stored in vials and can be transported between different cities for use by registered ART clinics.

According to the source data, registered sperm banks screen donors and provide donor samples according to applicable requirements. The fertility clinic can explain the screening and documentation applicable to the donor sample being used.

Surrogacy is an arrangement in which a woman carries and gives birth to a baby on behalf of another individual or couple. Gestational surrogacy generally involves transferring an embryo created through assisted reproductive treatment to the gestational carrier.

In gestational surrogacy, the gestational carrier carries a pregnancy created using an embryo that is produced through IVF. The carrier does not provide the egg used to create the embryo.

Surrogacy may be considered in selected situations where pregnancy is not possible or may present significant medical risks for the intended parent. Medical and legal eligibility must be assessed individually.

The process generally begins with medical and fertility evaluation, followed by appropriate counselling and legal assessment. The exact sequence depends on the individual's circumstances and applicable requirements.

Gestational surrogacy generally involves IVF to create embryos before embryo transfer to the gestational carrier.

Eggs and sperm are combined through assisted reproductive treatment to create embryos. The source of the eggs and sperm depends on the treatment plan and applicable medical and legal requirements.

A suitable embryo is transferred into the uterus of the gestational carrier using an embryo transfer procedure performed by the fertility team.

In gestational surrogacy, the gestational carrier does not provide the egg. The embryo is created separately through IVF before it is transferred to the carrier.

Surrogacy laws and eligibility requirements vary by country and jurisdiction and can change over time. Anyone considering surrogacy should obtain current advice from qualified legal professionals in the relevant jurisdiction.

The required evaluation depends on the individual situation and may include medical history, physical examination, fertility investigations, blood tests and other screening recommended by the healthcare team.

Counselling may be an important part of the surrogacy process because it can help intended parents and the gestational carrier understand the emotional and practical aspects of the arrangement. Specific requirements vary according to applicable regulations.

Risks can relate to IVF treatment, pregnancy and delivery. There may also be emotional and legal considerations. The healthcare team should explain the medical risks relevant to the individual case.

The timeline varies depending on medical evaluation, IVF treatment, embryo development, legal and administrative requirements and the course of pregnancy.

Depending on the treatment plan, frozen embryos may be considered for embryo transfer. The fertility specialist can explain whether this approach is appropriate for the individual case.

After pregnancy is confirmed, the gestational carrier receives appropriate medical and obstetric monitoring. The fertility and obstetric teams guide the next steps throughout the pregnancy.

It is an assisted reproductive procedure where eggs from a screened donor are fertilised with partner sperm in the lab, and the resulting embryo is transferred to the recipient's uterus.

It is recommended for women with diminished ovarian reserve, premature ovarian failure, advanced maternal age, poor egg quality, or previous repeated IVF failures.

Donors undergo strict medical, genetic, psychological, and infectious disease screenings to ensure optimal health and high reproductive potential.

Yes. Strict legal and medical confidentiality protocols protect the identities of both the donor and the recipient family.

Since donor eggs are used, the child will not share the intended mother's genetic material. However, if partner sperm is used, the child shares genetic ties with the father. The mother carries and nurtures the pregnancy.

Donor oocyte IVF has high success rates, typically ranging between 60% to 70% per transfer cycle, largely due to the young age and health of the donors.

The recipient takes hormone medications (estrogen and progesterone) to build and thicken the endometrial lining so it is perfectly synchronized for embryo transfer.

Yes, clinics can utilize either fresh donor cycles or vitrified (frozen) donor eggs from certified cryobanks depending on patient preference and availability.

A cycle typically takes around 4 to 6 weeks from the start of uterine preparation and donor synchronization to the embryo transfer procedure.

You can schedule a private consultation with our fertility specialists to discuss your medical history, explore donor matching options, and plan your treatment journey.

Laser Assisted Hatching (LAH) is a laboratory procedure in which a small opening is created or the outer layer of an embryo, called the zona pellucida, is thinned using a laser. The aim is to help the embryo hatch before implantation.

Before an embryo can attach to the wall of the womb, it needs to break out or 'hatch' from its outer protective layer called the zona pellucida.

The clinic states that assisted hatching is performed during an IVF or ICSI cycle while the embryo is in the laboratory, mostly on cleavage-stage embryos, typically Day 3 of in-vitro development.

The clinic lists advanced maternal age above 37, elevated Day-3 FSH, thick or abnormal zona pellucida, poor or slow-developing embryos, excessive embryo fragmentation, two or more previous failed IVF cycles and frozen-thaw embryo transfer cycles among possible indications.

Before embryo transfer, a few laser pulses are applied to the zona pellucida to create a small opening or thin the outer shell. The clinic states that the laser is fired away from the embryo's cells to avoid damaging them.

The clinic states that the procedure takes only a few seconds to complete per embryo, helping minimise the time the embryo is exposed outside the incubator.

No separate procedure is performed on the patient. The procedure is performed on the embryo in the laboratory. According to the clinic, the patient's IVF/ICSI process and embryo transfer are performed in the same way as a typical IVF cycle.

The clinic page explains that creating a hole or thinning the zona pellucida has been suggested to help embryos hatch and potentially increase pregnancy chances in assisted reproductive cycles. However, the page does not provide a specific success percentage for LAH.

No. The clinic lists specific patient and embryo characteristics for considering LAH. It is a selective procedure rather than something automatically performed on every embryo.

Yes. The procedure is performed during an IVF or ICSI cycle while the embryo is in the laboratory, before it is transferred back to the patient's uterus.

Yes. The clinic specifically describes Laser Assisted Hatching as a procedure performed during an IVF or ICSI cycle.

Yes. Frozen-thaw embryo transfer cycles are listed by the clinic as one of the situations in which Laser Assisted Hatching may be considered.

Pre-Implantation Genetic Testing (PGT) is a genetic testing technique in which a small number of cells are obtained from an embryo, usually a blastocyst, and tested for selected genetic or chromosomal abnormalities before embryo transfer.

PGT is the current broader term for pre-implantation genetic testing. Earlier terminology included PGD for specific genetic disorders and PGS for chromosome screening. PGT is now broadly classified into types such as PGT-A, PGT-M and PGT-SR.

PGT-A stands for Pre-Implantation Genetic Testing for Aneuploidies. It evaluates embryos for numerical chromosome abnormalities.

PGT-M stands for Pre-Implantation Genetic Testing for Monogenic disorders. It may be used when there is a known inherited single-gene condition for which targeted embryo testing is appropriate.

PGT-SR stands for Pre-Implantation Genetic Testing for Structural Rearrangements. It may be considered when a parent has a relevant structural chromosome rearrangement such as certain translocations.

PGT is performed during an IVF cycle. Embryos are developed in the laboratory to the appropriate stage, a small number of cells are obtained through embryo biopsy and the cells are sent to a genetic laboratory for testing.

No. PGT can provide useful genetic information about the tested cells, but it cannot detect every possible medical or developmental condition and cannot guarantee implantation, pregnancy or a healthy baby.

PGT technology has evolved substantially with modern molecular techniques. However, genetic testing has limitations and results should be interpreted with appropriate specialist and genetic counselling.

PGT may be beneficial in selected patients, but its value depends on the type of PGT, patient characteristics and clinical situation. It should not be considered a guarantee of improved pregnancy or live-birth outcomes for every patient.

PGT requires embryos created through an IVF-based treatment process because embryo biopsy is performed on laboratory-developed embryos before transfer.

No. It is considered individually. Egg age, ovarian reserve, embryo numbers and your goals guide the decision.

No. It provides information for selection. It does not repair chromosome abnormalities.

No. PGT-A has test limits. It does not rule out every genetic condition or guarantee pregnancy.

Yes. Appearance and chromosome status are different. A good grade does not confirm a euploid result.

No. PGT-M tests for a specific inherited condition. PGT-SR assesses risks from structural chromosome rearrangements.

Sometimes, after specialist review and genetic counselling. A mosaic result should not be treated as a simple yes or no.

Discuss whether the extra information justifies testing risks and cost. Transfer without PGT-A may be an option.

Yes. Prenatal screening and diagnostic options should still be offered and discussed, even after a euploid result.

No. It targets specified inherited variants. Some cases are not technically feasible, and it does not screen for all diseases.

Yes. Embryos must be created outside the body for biopsy and testing.

It is the family-specific work-up used to establish and validate embryo testing. It may require parental blood and relatives' DNA.

Often, for recessive disorders. The condition, possible carrier symptoms, and your preferences need review.

No. PGT-M targets a familial condition; PGT-A assesses chromosome number. Adding PGT-A is a separate decision.

No. It provides information for selection. It does not edit or repair an embryo's genes.

No. Offer CVS or amniocentesis to confirm the targeted result, alongside routine prenatal care.

Bring molecular genetic reports, carrier-screening results, family history, previous pregnancy records, and IVF reports.

Yes. Many carriers have no health problems, yet may form eggs or sperm with an unbalanced chromosome complement.

The parental karyotype identifies the rearrangement. Its exact details help the laboratory assess test feasibility.

No. Risk varies with rearrangement type, breakpoints and carrier sex. Sperm study figures cannot be applied to eggs.

No. PGT-SR targets a structural rearrangement. PGT-A assesses chromosome number; coverage and reporting may overlap.

No. It tests embryos to guide selection. It cannot change an embryo's chromosome structure.

Standard copy-number testing often combines normal and balanced results. Ask if specialised testing is feasible.

Bring both partners' karyotypes, any child or pregnancy genetic reports, miscarriage records and previous IVF details.

Request costs for work-up, IVF, biopsy, testing, freezing, storage and transfer, including repeat or inconclusive testing.

A child conceived with tissue-matching embryo testing who may be able to donate stem cells to an affected sibling.

No. HLA matching checks tissue compatibility; PGT-M checks a specified inherited condition. They may be combined.

Blood group and HLA are different systems. Donor selection is guided by the transplant team's detailed assessment.

Sometimes for recessive conditions. The disease, any carrier symptoms and suitability as a future donor need review.

No. The child's disease, transplant timing, cell dose and treatment complications affect the outcome.

No. The available cell dose may be inadequate. The transplant team decides whether it can be used.

No. There must be a recognised transplant indication and a suitable, feasible family testing plan.

Bring the child's diagnosis, genetic and HLA reports, transplant opinion, donor-search results and the parents' fertility records.

This has not been established. PRP should not be described as a proven way to restart ovaries or reverse menopause.

A reliable improvement in egg quality or live birth has not been demonstrated.

No. AMH is a reserve marker. The important outcomes are useful eggs, embryos and ultimately live birth.

No. PRP contains concentrated platelets. Stem-cell approaches involve separate cell products and additional controls.

No. Low AMH warrants assessment and timely planning. It does not establish an indication for ovarian PRP.

Ask about eligibility, ethics approval, regulatory oversight, the comparison group, follow-up, costs and care for complications.

Discuss the likely effect of waiting on your current treatment opportunities. An uncertain add-on should not displace a realistic plan.

Endometrial PRP (Platelet-Rich Plasma) is a regenerative treatment where concentrated growth factors from your own blood are infused into the uterus to improve lining thickness and receptivity.

It is recommended for women with a persistently thin endometrium who do not respond to standard medications, or those with a history of recurrent implantation failure during IVF.

No, the procedure is quick, minimally invasive, and generally painless, requiring no anesthesia. It feels similar to a routine speculum examination or IUI.

A small sample of your blood is drawn and placed into a centrifuge machine, which spins rapidly to separate and concentrate the platelets and growth factors.

PRP is typically performed a few days before the expected embryo transfer window or during the estrogen preparation phase of a frozen embryo transfer cycle.

Because PRP is autologous (derived from your own blood), the risk of allergic reactions, rejection, or transmission of blood-borne diseases is virtually nonexistent.

Follow-up transvaginal ultrasound scans are usually scheduled 3 to 5 days after the infusion to evaluate the regenerative response and measure thickness.

Most patients undergo a single infusion per cycle, though your fertility specialist may recommend a second session depending on how the endometrium responds.

While PRP significantly improves uterine receptivity and lining thickness in responsive patients, it enhances success chances rather than guaranteeing a live birth.

Yes, PRP is most commonly integrated as an add-on therapy during FET cycles to optimize the uterine environment before thawing and transferring the embryo.

Hysteroscopy is a visual examination of the uterus and its lining using a thin instrument called a hysteroscope. The hysteroscope has a light and camera and is gently passed through the vagina and cervix into the uterus.

Diagnostic hysteroscopy may be done to examine the shape and size of the uterus, identify scar tissue, find polyps or fibroids, investigate abnormal bleeding, evaluate recurrent miscarriage and check the openings of the fallopian tubes.

Yes. The clinic source describes hysteroscopy as an important tool in the study of infertility. It can help identify internal fibroids, scarring, polyps and congenital malformations of the uterus.

Yes. Hysteroscopy can identify fibroids that affect the uterine cavity. The clinic source also states that small fibroids may be removed during hysteroscopy when appropriate.

Yes. Uterine or endometrial polyps can be identified during hysteroscopy, and small polyps may be removed using instruments passed through the hysteroscope.

Yes. Scar tissue inside the uterus can be directly visualised during hysteroscopy and can be an important finding in infertility evaluation.

Yes. The clinic source lists finding the possible cause of repeated miscarriage as one of the reasons diagnostic hysteroscopy may be performed.

Hysteroscopy allows the doctor to see the openings of the fallopian tubes from inside the uterus. It does not provide the same complete tubal assessment as an HSG.

Laparoscopy is a surgical procedure in which a narrow telescope-like instrument called a laparoscope is inserted through a small incision, usually around the belly button. It allows direct visualization of abdominal and pelvic organs including the uterus, fallopian tubes and ovaries.

Laparoscopy can help identify abnormalities such as scar tissue, endometriosis, fibroids and other problems involving the uterus, fallopian tubes and ovaries. It can also provide an opportunity to treat certain abnormalities during operative laparoscopy.

Yes. The clinic source specifically states that some causes of infertility, such as endometriosis, can be diagnosed through laparoscopy.

Yes. Dye can be pushed through the cervix during laparoscopy. If the dye comes out through the fimbrial end of a tube, it indicates that the tube is patent. The source also lists blocked tubes as an abnormal finding.

Yes. Laparoscopy allows direct visualization of the ovaries and their relationship with the fallopian tubes and surrounding pelvic structures.

The clinic source describes normal findings as a normal-looking external uterus, tubes and ovaries with a normal relationship between the tubes and ovaries. The fimbrial ends of the tubes should also appear normal, and dye passing through the tubes indicates tubal patency.

Abnormal findings can include an abnormal size or shape of the external uterus, scar tissue outside the uterus, a blocked fallopian tube, or adhesions around the tube or ovary that distort the tubo-ovarian relationship.

Possible complications include injury to the bladder, ureter, bowel or blood vessels, bladder infection, skin irritation around the incision, postoperative infection and anaesthesia-related complications. Unexpected conversion to open surgery is possible but very rare.

Laparoscopy is an established surgical procedure, but it is invasive and has potential risks. The clinic source states that these complications are very unusual when laparoscopy is expertly performed on healthy women.

Yes. Like other surgical procedures, laparoscopy can be associated with postoperative infection, including infection at the skin incision. Bladder infection is also listed as a possible complication.

Rarely, pelvic structures such as the bladder, ureter, bowel and blood vessels can be injured during laparoscopy. These are recognised surgical risks.

Depending on the abnormality and the planned procedure, the surgeon may be able to treat or correct certain findings using additional instruments introduced through small ports. This is called operative laparoscopy.

Laparoscopy itself is a diagnostic and surgical procedure rather than a guaranteed fertility treatment. The clinic source states that identifying and treating certain causes of infertility may provide a better chance of getting pregnant naturally or with fertility treatments.

The main Indore Infertility Clinic laparoscopy page does not state a fixed amount in its text. It directs patients to the centre's Quick Reference Chart for the current cost of laparoscopy or laparoscopic surgery.

Micro-TESE stands for Micro Surgical Testicular Sperm Extraction. It is a surgical sperm retrieval procedure performed using a microscope to identify and selectively sample testicular tubules that may contain sperm.

Micro-TESE is performed to retrieve sperm directly from the testicular tissue when sperm are absent from the ejaculate or are present in very small quantities.

Micro-TESE is particularly useful in selected men with non-obstructive azoospermia, where sperm production is severely reduced and sperm may be present only in small areas of the testis.

Non-obstructive azoospermia refers to absence of sperm in the ejaculate because sperm production in the testes is impaired or severely reduced. In some cases, small areas of sperm production may still be present within the testicular tissue.

TESA uses a needle to aspirate testicular tissue, whereas Micro-TESE involves opening the testicular tissue and examining it under a powerful microscope so that potentially sperm-containing tubules can be selectively sampled.

PESA retrieves sperm from the epididymis using a needle. Micro-TESE retrieves sperm directly from the testicular tissue using microscopic surgical examination.

The clinic states that if sperm are present only in small pockets within the testes, Micro-TESE may provide a better chance of locating them because the surgeon can directly examine the tissue under a microscope rather than sampling blindly.

The procedure is performed under either general anaesthesia or a local anaesthetic block. An incision is made in the skin, testicular tissue is exposed and examined under magnification, and selected tubules that may contain sperm are sampled.

Yes. The clinic states that Micro-TESE is usually performed under either general anaesthesia or a local anaesthetic block.

The testicular tissue is examined under microscopic magnification. Tubules that appear swollen or dilated are selectively sampled and the tissue is then examined in the laboratory for sperm.

Yes. The clinic states that sperm retrieved through Micro-TESE can be used for IVF with ICSI.

When viable sperm are successfully retrieved, they can be used with ICSI to fertilize the female partner's eggs, providing an opportunity for biological fatherhood in selected cases.

No. Although microscopic examination can improve the chance of locating sperm when they are present in small pockets, sperm retrieval cannot be guaranteed, particularly in severe non-obstructive azoospermia.

Yes. The clinic describes Micro-TESE as slightly more invasive because an incision is required and a temporary stitch may be applied.

The clinic states that the temporary stitch does not leave permanent scarring or pain.

The retrieved tissue is processed in the laboratory. If viable sperm are identified, they can be used for IVF with ICSI.

If sperm are not identified, the fertility specialist will discuss the available options based on the underlying cause of azoospermia and the couple's fertility plan. The clinic's azoospermia information discusses alternatives such as donor sperm when sperm cannot be obtained.

Micro-TESE is particularly highlighted by the clinic for non-obstructive azoospermia. In obstructive azoospermia, sperm production may be preserved and less invasive retrieval techniques such as TESA or PESA may be considered depending on the individual case.

The Micro-TESE page does not state a fixed price. The clinic directs patients to its Quick Reference Chart for the current cost of Micro-TESE or surgical sperm retrieval.

No. Both procedures retrieve sperm from testicular tissue, but Micro-TESE uses powerful microscopic magnification to identify and selectively sample tubules that may contain sperm.

Varicocele Repair is surgery performed to improve male fertility and semen parameters. The surgery is known as Varicocelectomy or Micro-Varicocelectomy when performed with the aid of an operating microscope.

Yes. The source page states that Varicocele Surgery is performed on an outpatient basis, which means the patient can be discharged on the same day.

Micro-Varicocelectomy is Varicocele Surgery performed with the aid of an operating microscope.

The source page states that it is usually performed under General Anaesthesia. A small incision is made on the lower part of the abdomen, the vessels causing the varicocele are identified and ligated, and normal blood flow is resumed.

Yes. The purpose of Varicocele Surgery described on the page is to improve male fertility and semen parameters, with improvement occurring over a period of time.

Penile Prosthesis Surgery is described as a surgical option for selected cases of shrinkage in penis size associated with Erectile Dysfunction or other systemic disorders such as Peyronie's disease.

The source page mentions Erectile Dysfunction, Peyronie's disease, cases after prostate cancer surgeries and nerve injuries as situations where Penile Prosthesis Surgery may be required.

The source page recommends detailed discussion with the Andrologist so that expectations and realistic outcomes are in line before undergoing the procedure.

The source page states that there are no known disadvantages of Varicocele Surgery.

The source page does not provide a fixed cost for these surgical procedures. Cost depends on the specific procedure and individual treatment plan.

Oocyte cryopreservation, commonly called egg freezing, is a fertility preservation technique in which mature eggs are collected from the ovaries and frozen for potential future use.

Women may consider egg freezing for personal fertility planning or for medical reasons when future fertility may be affected. The decision should be discussed with a fertility specialist based on individual circumstances.

Suitable mature eggs are rapidly frozen using a cryopreservation technique, commonly vitrification, and stored in specialized laboratory conditions.

Before an egg-freezing cycle, the fertility specialist may perform a medical history, fertility assessment, ovarian reserve testing and ultrasound evaluation before planning ovarian stimulation.

Hormonal fertility medicines are used to stimulate the ovaries so that multiple follicles can develop during a treatment cycle. The response is monitored by the fertility team.

When the follicles are ready, eggs are collected from the ovaries through an egg retrieval procedure performed by the fertility specialist, generally using ultrasound guidance.

The level of discomfort varies between individuals. Ovarian stimulation may cause bloating or abdominal discomfort, while egg retrieval may cause temporary cramping or pelvic discomfort.

There is no single number that guarantees a future pregnancy. The number of eggs that may be appropriate depends on factors such as age, ovarian reserve and individual fertility circumstances.

No. Egg freezing preserves an option for future treatment but does not guarantee a future pregnancy. Outcomes depend on factors including age at freezing, number and maturity of eggs, thaw survival, fertilization and embryo development.

Frozen eggs can be stored under controlled laboratory conditions. The permitted storage period and applicable requirements can depend on local regulations and the policies of the fertility clinic.

Yes. When the eggs are needed, suitable frozen eggs can be thawed and may be fertilized with sperm through assisted reproductive treatment.

After thawing, suitable eggs may be fertilized with sperm in the laboratory. The resulting embryos can be developed and an appropriate embryo may be considered for transfer to the uterus.

Vitrification is a rapid cryopreservation technique used to freeze eggs quickly and reduce the formation of damaging ice crystals during freezing.

Yes. Fertility preservation may be considered before certain medical treatments that could affect ovarian function, when appropriate and when time allows.

The cost varies between clinics and depends on medicines, monitoring, egg retrieval, laboratory cryopreservation and storage. Future use of the frozen eggs may involve additional treatment costs.

No. Embryos are already fertilised. Egg freezing stores unfertilised eggs and allows the sperm source to be chosen later.

No. Some embryos do not survive or are unsuitable for transfer after warming.

Not routinely. A known inherited condition may justify PGT-M. PGT-A is a separate decision and is not required for every patient.

Stimulation can cause discomfort and, occasionally, ovarian hyperstimulation. Egg collection carries small risks such as bleeding, infection or sedation complications.

Discuss the current permitted period, consent and renewal arrangements with your clinic. Storage contracts and payments also need review.

Sometimes. Remaining ovarian function and safe timing need specialist assessment. An early referral before treatment is preferable.

Request an itemised estimate for medicines, monitoring, collection, IVF or ICSI, freezing, storage, warming and future transfer.

It is the process of collecting, analyzing, freezing, and storing sperm samples in liquid nitrogen at ultra-low temperatures for future fertility use.

Sperm can be stored successfully for many years—even decades—in liquid nitrogen tanks without losing its biological viability or genetic integrity.

It is recommended for men undergoing cancer treatments, vasectomies, hazardous occupational exposures, or those seeking backup samples for IVF/IUI procedures.

Usually, fasting is not required, but an abstinence period of 2 to 5 days is recommended prior to sample collection for optimal sperm count.

The sample is provided via masturbation in a private, secure, and sterile collection room located within our clinic facility.

Not 100% of sperm survive, as some natural cell loss occurs during thawing. However, millions of viable sperm remain, which is sufficient for fertility treatments.

Yes. Thawed sperm samples are routinely and successfully used in intra-uterine insemination (IUI), in-vitro fertilization (IVF), and ICSI procedures.

Mandatory screening for infections like HIV and Hepatitis prevents cross-contamination and ensures samples are safely segregated in specialized storage tanks.

When you are ready, you can request sample retrieval. The vials are carefully thawed, analyzed, and prepared for your scheduled fertility procedure.

You can schedule a consultation with our fertility specialists or clinic reception desk to discuss your requirements and complete initial paperwork.

Your doctor reviews the result and arranges follow-up blood tests or an early scan as needed. A positive result alone does not confirm pregnancy location or viability.

Follow the prescribed stop date. Hormonal support varies by transfer protocol; do not stop or change medicines without your treating doctor's advice.

Yes, prenatal screening and diagnostic testing options are still offered. Preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) does not replace these options.

A third trimester growth assessment may be advised. Repeat scans depend on growth, pregnancy risks and clinical findings, rather than being needed at every visit.

No. Some babies are naturally small. Growth trends, fluid and Doppler findings help identify babies who need closer monitoring.

An NST is non-invasive and should not hurt. Sensors are secured on your abdomen; recording usually takes 20 to 40 minutes and sometimes longer.

Contact your maternity team immediately if movements reduce or change. Do not wait until the next day or use a home Doppler for reassurance.

No. IVF alone does not determine the mode of birth. Pregnancy findings, obstetric indications and your preferences guide the delivery plan.

No. Some twins have separate placentas; others share one. Early ultrasound identifies the placenta and sac arrangement, which guides monitoring.

Usually, yes. Each baby's growth and fluid need assessment. Twins sharing a placenta generally need more frequent scans; triplet care is individualised.

TTTS can occur when babies share a placenta and blood flow between them becomes unbalanced. Frequent ultrasound checks help identify concerns and guide specialist referral.

A size difference needs careful review, but does not by itself tell the whole story. Growth trends, fluid and Doppler findings guide follow-up.

NST means nonstress test. External monitors record fetal heart rate responses to movement. In twins, each baby is monitored separately when the test is indicated.

No. Routine bed rest and cervical cerclage are not recommended simply because you are expecting twins. Selected concerns need specialist assessment.

No. The first baby's position, pregnancy type, complications and other obstetric factors influence the options. Triplets and shared-sac twins usually require caesarean birth.

Planned birth is often recommended before the usual due date. Timing depends on placentas and sacs, growth and maternal health, and can change if complications arise.

Contact your maternity team immediately if movements reduce or change. Do not wait until the next day or use a home Doppler for reassurance.

No. It means closer assessment or planning may be useful. Many women have healthy pregnancies with appropriate follow-up; the label does not predict your individual outcome.

Older maternal age, diabetes, hypertension and obesity can overlap. IVF, donor eggs or multiple pregnancy may add care needs. The combined risk factors determine the monitoring plan.

You may, depending on the reason for closer care. Growth, fluid, placental or blood-flow concerns can require additional scans. Your clinician explains the purpose and timing.

NST means nonstress test. External monitors record the baby's heart rate and its response to movement. It is used when indicated to help assess fetal wellbeing.

Only when indicated for your risk factors. Low-dose aspirin may be prescribed to reduce pre-eclampsia risk in selected women. IVF alone is not a reason to start it yourself.

Not automatically. Work, exercise and travel advice depends on your condition and symptoms. Ask for specific guidance about the activities you can safely continue.

Often it remains an option. The underlying condition, baby's position and wellbeing, placenta and other obstetric factors determine whether vaginal or caesarean birth is appropriate.

Additional scans, tests or specialist reviews can increase the total cost. Ask what each fee includes and request an estimate based on your expected care plan.

Call or WhatsApp Indore Infertility Clinic. Share your pregnancy week, main concern and latest reports so the team can help arrange the appropriate consultation.

Gestational diabetes often has no obvious symptoms. A GTT checks your response to glucose and can detect a problem that a single routine sugar reading may miss.

No. Pregnancy-related insulin resistance can increase later. Your clinician may repeat testing at 24-28 weeks even if an earlier result was normal.

It depends on the prescribed protocol. A fasting OGTT usually needs at least 8 hours without food; some Indian protocols allow non-fasting testing. Confirm instructions when booking.

Some women meet their targets with nutrition and activity changes, while others need medicines. Your readings and pregnancy findings determine what is appropriate.

Usually, no. The amount, type and timing matter. A nutritionist can help plan portions and balanced meals without skipping food groups.

Insulin is commonly used in pregnancy and does not cross the placenta in meaningful amounts. When prescribed, it helps control glucose and reduce risks from high sugar.

High glucose can cause excess growth and low newborn glucose after birth. Management reduces these risks, and birth timing depends on control and obstetric findings.

It often resolves, but diabetes can persist and future type 2 diabetes risk remains higher. Keep postpartum test and screening appointments even if you feel well.

Yes. Routine BP and urine checks may identify concerns before you feel unwell. Keep scheduled reviews even if you have no symptoms.

No. Diagnosis considers repeat BP measurements, urine, blood tests and clinical findings. A severe reading still needs urgent assessment.

Yes. It can be diagnosed when high BP is accompanied by other organ or placental findings. A normal urine result alone does not rule it out.

No. IVF is considered with other risk factors. Aspirin is prescribed after an individual assessment of benefit, suitability and timing. Do not start it yourself.

It can affect placental function and slow growth. Growth, fluid, Doppler and fetal heart rate checks help assess wellbeing and guide the care plan.

No. Timing and mode depend on your BP, pregnancy stage and maternal and fetal findings. Severe pre-eclampsia can make earlier delivery necessary.

Regular moderate activity can help when it is safe for your pregnancy. With high BP or pre-eclampsia, get individual advice. Exercise does not replace medicines, monitoring or urgent care.

Yes, it can first appear or continue in the weeks after birth. Keep postpartum BP reviews and seek urgent care for warning symptoms.

Book early if you have had a preterm birth, late miscarriage, PPROM, cervical stitch or cervical surgery. A short cervix, twins or other pregnancy concerns may also prompt referral.

No. Early labour, leaking waters, infection, multiple pregnancy, uterine or placental conditions, and medical complications can also lead to preterm birth.

In mid-pregnancy it commonly identifies a short cervix. Pregnancy weeks, measurement method, history and number of babies affect interpretation; it is not an automatic reason for a stitch.

No. Some pregnancies are managed with vaginal progesterone or surveillance. Cerclage is chosen for specific indications after considering history and symptoms.

No. IVF alone does not justify cerclage. Twin pregnancies have different evidence and treatment choices; specialist assessment is needed.

No. They can reduce risk in selected pregnancies, but cannot prevent every preterm birth. Keep monitoring plans and seek help for new symptoms.

Routine prolonged bed rest is not recommended to prevent preterm birth. Discuss recovery, exercise, work and sexual activity with your team.

Seek immediate maternity assessment, particularly if a stitch is in place. Do not assume it is urine or harmless tightening, or wait for your next clinic visit.

No. IVF alone does not make surgery mandatory. Vaginal birth may be appropriate after assessment of maternal health, scans, fetal wellbeing and previous surgery.

It describes the emotional value of a hard-won pregnancy. It is not a medical indication by itself; your history, current findings and informed preference guide planning.

No. Safety depends on individual circumstances. C-section can be safer when indicated, but it introduces surgical risks and does not guarantee a better outcome.

Discuss your fears early. Counselling, pain-relief options and mental health support may help. A planned caesarean can be considered after an informed discussion.

Birth before 39 weeks without a medical reason increases newborn breathing risks. Earlier birth may be appropriate for specific maternal or fetal complications.

Not always. Twin type and presentation matter. After previous surgery, the uterine scar and current pregnancy determine whether VBAC is a suitable option.

Most planned procedures use spinal or epidural anaesthesia so you remain awake. Feeding and skin-to-skin support are available when you and your baby are stable.

Contact the maternity hospital promptly, including if your waters break. The team reassesses you and your baby and discusses whether to proceed with surgery or continue labour.

Ask for an itemised hospital estimate covering obstetric care, anaesthesia, room, medicines and newborn care. Extra stay, complications or newborn intensive care may change the total.

Azoospermia is a condition in which sperm are not detected in the semen. Further evaluation is usually needed to understand the underlying cause.

Treatment depends on the underlying cause. Depending on the diagnosis, treatment may involve medicines, surgical treatment, sperm retrieval or assisted reproductive techniques.

Azoospermia can occur when sperm production is significantly impaired or when sperm are produced but are unable to reach the semen because of an obstruction. Other medical, hormonal or genetic factors may also contribute.

Evaluation may include semen analysis, medical history, physical examination and hormonal testing. Depending on the findings, ultrasound, genetic or other specialized investigations may be recommended.

Not necessarily. In some cases, sperm may be present in the reproductive tract even though sperm are not found in the semen. Depending on the cause and clinical findings, sperm retrieval may be considered.

Sperm retrieval is a procedure used in selected patients to obtain sperm directly from reproductive tissues when sperm are not present in the ejaculate.

In selected men with non-obstructive azoospermia, sperm retrieval may be considered. The possibility of finding sperm depends on the individual's underlying condition and sperm-production pattern.

Yes. Obstructive azoospermia occurs when sperm production may be present but a blockage prevents sperm from reaching the semen.

In selected cases, a surgical procedure may be considered to address an obstruction. The appropriate treatment depends on the location and cause of the obstruction.

Hormonal factors can affect sperm production. Hormonal blood tests may therefore be recommended when the fertility specialist suspects an endocrine or hormonal cause.

No. Genetic testing is recommended selectively based on the individual's clinical findings, semen results and suspected underlying cause.

When suitable sperm are available through ejaculation or sperm retrieval, assisted reproductive techniques such as IVF or ICSI may be considered depending on the fertility evaluation of the couple.

The duration depends on the cause and treatment plan. Diagnostic evaluation may require several investigations, while surgical treatment and assisted reproductive treatment have their own timelines.

The level of discomfort depends on the treatment. Diagnostic tests such as semen analysis are generally non-invasive, while surgical procedures or sperm retrieval may involve temporary discomfort during recovery.

After confirming azoospermia, the fertility specialist evaluates the likely cause and discusses appropriate treatment or fertility options based on the individual's medical findings and reproductive goals.

Sperm freezing, also called sperm cryopreservation, is a fertility preservation technique in which suitable sperm are collected, processed, frozen and stored for potential future use.

Sperm banking is the process of collecting and storing sperm samples under controlled cryogenic conditions so that they may potentially be used for future fertility treatment.

Sperm may be frozen for fertility preservation before certain medical treatments, before procedures that could affect fertility, as part of fertility treatment planning or for other individual reproductive reasons.

Sperm are commonly collected through semen collection according to the instructions provided by the fertility laboratory. In selected situations, sperm obtained through a medical retrieval procedure may also be considered for freezing.

The laboratory may perform semen analysis to evaluate parameters such as sperm concentration and motility. Additional testing may be recommended depending on the individual's clinical situation.

The semen sample is processed and suitable sperm are prepared for cryopreservation. The sample is frozen using an appropriate laboratory technique and stored in specialized cryogenic conditions.

Frozen sperm can be stored under appropriate cryogenic conditions. The permitted storage duration and applicable requirements depend on local regulations and the policies of the fertility clinic or laboratory.

Some sperm may not survive the freezing and thawing process. The laboratory uses cryopreservation techniques designed to preserve suitable sperm for potential future use.

Depending on the sperm quality and the fertility circumstances, thawed sperm may potentially be prepared for use in IUI when recommended by the fertility specialist.

Yes. Depending on the treatment plan, thawed sperm may be used for assisted reproductive techniques such as IVF or ICSI.

Fertility preservation through sperm banking may be considered before certain cancer treatments that could affect sperm production. The timing should be discussed with the medical and fertility teams as early as possible.

The appropriate number of samples depends on the individual's fertility status, planned treatment and reason for sperm banking. Your fertility specialist can recommend an appropriate plan.

Yes. Multiple semen samples may be collected and frozen when recommended or when additional stored samples are desired.

Routine semen collection for sperm freezing is generally non-invasive. If sperm need to be obtained through a medical retrieval procedure, the level of discomfort and recovery depend on the procedure used.

The stored sample is thawed according to laboratory protocols and evaluated before being prepared for the fertility treatment recommended by the specialist.

PGT stands for Pre-Implantation Genetic Testing. It is a test performed on a few cells extracted from an embryo, usually at the Day 5 or Day 6 blastocyst stage, to evaluate specific genetic or chromosomal abnormalities before embryo transfer. PGD is an older term that is now commonly included under PGT, particularly for monogenic disorders.

According to the clinic, patients may be counseled for PGT-A when maternal age is 35 or above along with factors such as severe male factor infertility, recurrent implantation failure, multiple pregnancy losses, or a previous pregnancy or live-born child with aneuploidy.

PGT-A is Pre-Implantation Genetic Testing for Aneuploidies. It is used to screen for numerical chromosome abnormalities involving the 23 pairs of chromosomes.

PGT-SR is Pre-Implantation Genetic Testing for Structural Rearrangements. It is used when a parent has a known structural chromosome rearrangement such as a reciprocal translocation, Robertsonian translocation, inversion, insertion or deletion.

PGT-M is Pre-Implantation Genetic Testing for Monogenic Disorders. It may be considered when a parent has a single-gene disorder, there is a family history of such a disorder, or there is already an affected child.

The clinic states that embryo biopsy is usually performed on Day 5 or Day 6 when the embryo has developed into a fully expanded blastocyst. Around 7–10 cells are extracted from the trophectoderm layer.

The clinic states that PGT results usually take approximately 1–3 weeks depending on the type of test. PGT-A and PGT-SR are listed as taking around 7–10 days, while PGT-M may take up to 3 weeks.

The clinic describes blastocyst trophectoderm biopsy as a commonly used approach in which approximately 7–10 cells are removed from the outer layer. However, it also emphasises that embryo biopsy is an invasive procedure and should be performed by a highly trained technician.

No. PGT does not guarantee a baby without any genetic abnormality. The clinic explains that PGT is designed to test particular genetic or chromosomal abnormalities rather than every possible genetic condition.

No. The clinic strongly states that PGT is not for everyone and should not automatically be used as a general screening tool. The decision should be based on the individual clinical and genetic situation.

According to the clinic source, PGT is performed in conjunction with an IVF cycle because embryos need to be created in the laboratory, cultured to the appropriate stage and biopsied before genetic testing.

The clinic states that blastocysts undergoing biopsy are tagged and cryopreserved while the extracted cells are sent to the genetic laboratory. After results are available, a suitable embryo may be selected for a frozen embryo transfer cycle.

An endometrial biopsy is an outpatient procedure in which a small sample of tissue is taken from the lining of the uterus. The sample is examined under a microscope by a pathologist and may also be tested using laboratory techniques such as PCR when required.

An endometrial biopsy may be performed during fertility evaluation to assess the endometrium, investigate infection or inflammation and look for conditions such as genital tuberculosis when clinically indicated.

TB-PCR is a laboratory test that can be performed on an endometrial biopsy sample when testing for genital tuberculosis is required.

The procedure is performed by an IVF specialist. A speculum is inserted into the vagina and a narrow biopsy instrument or catheter is passed through the cervix into the uterus to collect a small sample of endometrial tissue.

The procedure is best performed before menstruation. For a woman with a 28-day menstrual cycle, it is usually scheduled between Days 21 and 26, depending on the clinical requirement.

The complete test generally takes about five minutes when performed by an experienced IVF doctor. The actual tissue collection takes approximately 60 seconds.

The procedure is usually tolerated well and may cause minor discomfort or mild cramping. A painkiller such as ibuprofen or paracetamol may be given about half an hour before the procedure to reduce discomfort.

The IVF specialist inserts a speculum and may use Allie's forceps to stabilize the cervix. A narrow instrument or catheter is then passed into the uterus to collect a small tissue sample. Mild cramping may occur during collection.

Hysterosonography, also called sonohysterography, is a non-invasive technique in which sterile saline is slowly infused into the uterus while ultrasound imaging is performed. It helps provide a more detailed view of the uterine cavity than regular vaginal sonography alone.

According to the source, Hysterosonography is done to assess whether fertility problems may be related to polyps, leiomyomas (fibroids) or adhesions inside the uterus.

No. The source specifically states that Hysterosonography does not require radiation. It uses ultrasound imaging instead.

No. The source describes Hysterosonography as a technique that does not require contrast media. Sterile saline is introduced into the uterine cavity to improve visualisation.

According to the source page, Hysterosonography is performed during the first 10 days of the menstrual cycle.

A baseline transvaginal ultrasound is performed first. A sterile speculum is then inserted, the cervix is cleaned and a catheter is placed into the uterine cavity. The speculum is removed, the transvaginal probe is reinserted, and sterile saline is injected through the catheter while ultrasound imaging is performed.

The source states that the ultrasound examination is usually completed within approximately 10 minutes.

Some patients may feel occasional cramping when saline is introduced into the uterus. The source states that pain killers such as Ibuprofen are usually given before the procedure to help prevent cramping.

Yes. Hysterosonography can help identify fibroids or leiomyomas inside the uterus and determine their location, which can be useful when establishing a treatment or management strategy.

Yes. Polyps inside the uterus are among the abnormalities that Hysterosonography can help identify.

Yes. The source specifically lists adhesions inside the uterus as one of the conditions that Hysterosonography can help assess.

A normal result shows that the inside of the uterus appears normal in shape and size, with no polyps, fibroids or other growths. The openings to both fallopian tubes should also look normal.

Abnormal findings may include an abnormal size or shape of the inside of the uterus, scar tissue, uterine polyps, fibroids or other growths, or a closed opening to one or both fallopian tubes.

Yes. A baseline transvaginal ultrasound is performed to view the endometrium, including its thickness, and Hysterosonography provides a more detailed investigation of abnormalities involving the uterine cavity and endometrium.

No. Hysterosonography uses sterile saline and ultrasound to evaluate the uterine cavity, whereas HSG uses radiographic contrast dye and X-ray imaging. The two tests therefore use different techniques and have different purposes.

Ultrasonographic assessment is an extremely important part of fertility assessment because it identifies problems or irregularities which may affect conception and provides your Specialist with information to facilitate treatment planning.

The transvaginal ultrasound picture accurately depicts the pelvic anatomy of the scanned area and provides a safe, quick and reproducible method of assessment.

USG assessment of the endometrium is an important investigative tool in assessing the receptivity of the endometrium and can provide useful information during fertility evaluation.

Yes. Congenital uterine abnormalities may have an important role in subfertility, implantation failure and the outcome of pregnancy.

Endometrial volume is described as a useful criterion in predicting embryo implantation success and pregnancy rate in patients undergoing IVF.

3D/4D scanning technology is an advanced ultrasound technique. In pre-conception imaging, 3D ultrasound is particularly useful for identifying abnormalities in the uterus and evaluating the uterine cavity.

3D ultrasound can help evaluate the uterine cavity for conditions such as endometrial polyps, uterine fibroids and other uterine conditions.

3D and 4D scanning provides detailed imaging and information that can assist fertility assessment, identification of issues that might affect fertility, assessment of response to ovarian stimulation and treatment planning.

The assessment is performed using a transvaginal sonogram to obtain detailed images of the uterus and endometrial cavity.

Endometrial receptivity refers to the suitability of the uterine lining for embryo implantation. Ultrasound assessment of the endometrium is an important investigative tool in assessing endometrial receptivity.

Ultrasound can help identify problems or irregularities involving the uterus. The page specifically describes 3D ultrasound as particularly useful for identifying uterine abnormalities and evaluating the uterine cavity.

Yes. The page states that 3D ultrasound helps in evaluating the uterine cavity for the presence of endometrial polyps.

Yes. 3D ultrasound can help identify uterine fibroids, which are benign tumours of the muscle of the uterus.

Yes. Ultrasonographic assessment provides the Specialist with information that can help identify problems or irregularities and facilitate fertility treatment planning.

The page describes transvaginal ultrasound as a safe, quick and reproducible method for accurately depicting pelvic anatomy.

Evaluation of the uterine cavity can help identify abnormalities that may affect fertility, implantation or pregnancy outcome and can provide information useful for treatment planning.

The page states that 3D/4D scanning can provide effective identification of issues which might affect fertility or possible causes of recurrent pregnancy loss.

The page states that the imaging can assist with prediction of a patient's response to drugs used to stimulate the ovaries.

The live Endometrial Assessment page does not provide a specific price. Patients are advised to contact the clinic for the current cost of the assessment.

The page describes a 3D/4D assessment of the endometrial cavity using a transvaginal sonogram, which provides detailed imaging of the uterus and uterine cavity.

IMSI stands for Intracytoplasmic Morphologically Selected Sperm Injection. It is an advanced sperm-selection technique that uses high-magnification microscopy to examine sperm morphology before selecting an individual sperm for injection into an egg.

ICSI involves injecting a selected sperm directly into an egg. IMSI adds a high-magnification sperm-selection step before the ICSI injection, allowing the embryologist to examine sperm morphology in greater detail.

During IMSI, individual sperm are examined under high magnification. The embryologist selects a sperm with suitable observed morphological characteristics for injection.

High magnification allows the embryologist to examine sperm morphology in greater detail than conventional microscopic assessment.

IMSI is not a separate IVF treatment by itself. It is an advanced sperm-selection technique that can be incorporated into an IVF/ICSI treatment cycle.

IMSI may be considered for selected couples where detailed sperm morphology assessment is considered clinically relevant. Suitability depends on the individual fertility evaluation.

No. IMSI is not necessarily required for every fertility treatment cycle. The fertility specialist and embryology team determine whether it is appropriate for an individual couple.

IMSI is intended to provide more detailed sperm selection, but treatment outcomes vary. The use of IMSI does not guarantee successful fertilisation or pregnancy.

No. Pregnancy depends on several factors including egg quality, sperm quality, embryo development, age and other reproductive factors.

When IMSI is performed as part of an IVF/ICSI cycle, eggs are generally collected through an egg retrieval procedure before the laboratory fertilisation process.

After selection, the chosen sperm is injected directly into the egg using an ICSI-based microinjection procedure.

After fertilisation, embryos are cultured and monitored in the embryology laboratory. Depending on the treatment plan, an appropriate embryo may later be transferred to the uterus or frozen for future use.

IMSI may be considered in selected cases involving male-factor fertility concerns, particularly when detailed sperm morphology assessment is considered useful.

The IMSI sperm-selection and injection procedures are laboratory procedures performed on sperm and eggs. The physical experience for the patient is mainly related to the other procedures involved in the IVF/ICSI treatment cycle, such as ovarian stimulation and egg retrieval.

The timing depends on the laboratory workflow, number of eggs and sperm requiring assessment, and the overall IVF/ICSI treatment protocol.

IMSI involves laboratory sperm selection and ICSI-based injection. The overall treatment risks are primarily related to the assisted reproductive treatment cycle, and individual risks should be discussed with the fertility specialist.

The cost varies between fertility centres and depends on whether IMSI is included in an IVF/ICSI package or charged as an additional laboratory service.

Yes. IMSI can be incorporated into an IVF/ICSI treatment cycle, and additional procedures may be considered according to the couple's fertility requirements.

The choice should be made with the fertility specialist and embryology team after reviewing sperm parameters, fertility history and the overall treatment plan.

Treatment outcomes can be influenced by sperm quality, egg quality, female partner's age, embryo development, reproductive health and other individual fertility factors.

ICSI or Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection is an assisted fertilization technique in which a single selected sperm is injected directly into a mature egg in the laboratory. It is commonly performed as part of an IVF cycle.

In conventional IVF, sperm and eggs are placed together in the laboratory and fertilization occurs without direct sperm injection. In ICSI, an embryologist injects a selected sperm directly into the egg.

ICSI may be considered for significant male-factor infertility, very low sperm count or motility, abnormal sperm morphology, previous failed or poor fertilization, or when sperm is obtained surgically.

Yes. In selected cases, sperm retrieved using procedures such as TESA or PESA can be prepared and used for ICSI.

No. ICSI is designed to assist fertilization, but it does not guarantee embryo development, implantation or pregnancy. Outcomes depend on egg quality, sperm factors, age and other reproductive factors.

The sperm injection itself is performed in the laboratory and is not felt by the patient. The associated IVF procedures, such as ovarian stimulation and egg retrieval, may involve medicines, monitoring and a procedure under appropriate medical care.

The overall timeline depends on the IVF protocol, ovarian response, egg retrieval, embryo development and whether a fresh or frozen embryo transfer is planned.

The laboratory checks the eggs for signs of fertilization and continues to monitor successfully fertilized eggs as embryos develop before the planned embryo transfer or cryopreservation.

Appropriately stored and prepared frozen sperm can be used for ICSI when considered suitable by the fertility laboratory and treating specialist.

No. Sex selection for non-medical reasons is prohibited in India. Fertility treatment must comply with applicable Indian laws and regulations.

Comprehensive male fertility services include evaluation and treatment of factors affecting male reproductive health, sperm production, sperm quality, sperm transport and fertility.

Semen analysis is one of the fundamental investigations used during male fertility evaluation. Additional tests are recommended according to the patient's clinical findings.

Semen analysis provides information about important sperm parameters including sperm concentration, motility and morphology.

Hormonal testing may be recommended when semen parameters, symptoms or clinical findings suggest a possible hormonal contribution to infertility.

Depending on the clinical situation, tests may include FSH, LH and testosterone. Additional hormonal tests may be recommended when required.

Genetic testing may be considered in selected men, particularly when there are severe abnormalities in sperm production or other clinical findings that suggest a genetic cause.

Y chromosome microdeletion testing is a genetic investigation that can identify certain genetic changes associated with impaired sperm production.

Sperm DNA fragmentation testing evaluates the integrity of sperm DNA and may provide additional information in selected fertility cases.

PESA, or Percutaneous Epididymal Sperm Aspiration, is a procedure used to retrieve sperm from the epididymis in selected cases.

TESA, or Testicular Sperm Aspiration, is a procedure used to retrieve sperm directly from testicular tissue in selected patients.

Micro-TESE is a microsurgical testicular sperm retrieval procedure used in selected men with severe impairment of sperm production.

Yes. Sperm cryopreservation and semen banking can be used for fertility preservation in appropriate patients.

Treatment depends on the underlying cause. Depending on the diagnosis, options may include medical management, surgery, sperm retrieval, sperm selection or assisted reproductive techniques.

Yes. General health and lifestyle factors can influence reproductive health and sperm quality. A fertility specialist can advise on appropriate lifestyle measures.

No. Genetic testing is generally recommended only when clinically indicated based on the patient's semen parameters, medical history and other findings.

No. Sperm DNA testing is an additional investigation that may be recommended in selected situations when the specialist believes it may provide useful information.

Depending on sperm quality and the couple's overall fertility assessment, assisted reproductive techniques such as IVF or ICSI may be considered.

The specialist reviews the medical and reproductive history, evaluates available reports and determines which investigations are appropriate before developing an individualised treatment plan.

The cost varies depending on the investigations and procedures required. Current charges should be confirmed directly with the clinic.

A male hormone profile is a group of blood tests used to evaluate reproductive hormones that influence testosterone production, sperm production and male reproductive function.

Hormone testing can help identify endocrine or hormonal factors that may contribute to abnormal sperm production or other fertility-related problems.

Depending on the clinical situation, testing may include FSH, LH, testosterone and prolactin. Additional tests such as estradiol, SHBG or thyroid-related hormones may be considered when clinically indicated.

FSH is involved in the regulation of sperm production. Abnormal FSH levels can provide useful information about testicular sperm-production function.

LH stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone and is an important reproductive hormone.

Testosterone is important for male reproductive and sexual function. Testing may be recommended when low testosterone or hormonal dysfunction is suspected.

Low testosterone can be associated with reproductive and sexual symptoms. However, fertility should be evaluated comprehensively because testosterone treatment itself can affect sperm production.

Prolactin may be tested when symptoms or clinical findings suggest an endocrine problem because abnormal prolactin levels can affect reproductive and sexual function.

No. Hormonal testing is recommended when clinically indicated based on semen analysis, symptoms, physical findings and medical history.

Yes. Reproductive hormone levels are generally evaluated using blood samples.

Testosterone levels can vary during the day, so the timing of testing may be important. Follow the timing instructions provided by your doctor or laboratory.

Hormone testing can provide important information about possible endocrine factors, but results need to be interpreted together with semen analysis, medical history, examination and other investigations.

Yes. Male infertility can have many causes, and normal reproductive hormone levels do not necessarily mean that sperm production or sperm function is normal.

It is better to discuss the results with a fertility specialist because hormone levels need to be interpreted according to symptoms, timing of testing, laboratory reference ranges and other fertility findings.

Depending on the clinical situation, the evaluation may include semen analysis, physical examination, genetic testing, ultrasound or other specialised male infertility investigations.

The cost depends on the specific hormones recommended and the laboratory charges. Current prices should be confirmed directly with the clinic or laboratory.

A comprehensive male well-being assessment is an individualised evaluation of a man's general health, reproductive health, medical history, lifestyle and fertility-related concerns.

Male reproductive health can be influenced by general health, hormonal factors, sperm quality, lifestyle and other medical factors. A comprehensive assessment helps identify factors that may be relevant to fertility.

The specialist reviews the patient's medical and reproductive history, discusses relevant health and lifestyle factors and recommends appropriate investigations based on the individual's clinical situation.

Semen analysis is an important investigation in male fertility evaluation and may be recommended depending on the patient's fertility concerns and clinical history.

Semen analysis provides information about important sperm parameters such as sperm concentration, motility and morphology.

Hormonal testing may be recommended when the medical history, symptoms or fertility investigations suggest that hormonal evaluation may be useful.

Lifestyle and general health can be relevant to male reproductive well-being. Lifestyle factors are therefore considered when appropriate during a comprehensive assessment.

No. The appropriate evaluation depends on the individual's medical history, symptoms, fertility concerns and clinical findings.

A fertility assessment may be considered when a couple is experiencing difficulty conceiving or when there are individual concerns about male reproductive health. A fertility specialist can advise on appropriate evaluation.

Yes. Certain medical and reproductive conditions can affect sperm production or reproductive function. The specialist can determine whether further evaluation is required.

Some medications may affect reproductive function. Patients should provide the fertility specialist with a complete list of medications they are taking.

Depending on the clinical situation, additional investigations may include hormonal testing, specialised sperm testing or genetic evaluation.

No. Genetic testing is generally considered when specific clinical or fertility findings indicate that it may be appropriate.

Lifestyle assessment helps the specialist understand relevant daily habits and health factors that may be associated with overall reproductive well-being.

Treatment depends on the underlying cause. Depending on the diagnosis, management may include medical treatment, lifestyle guidance, surgery, fertility preservation or assisted reproductive techniques.

Yes. Male fertility evaluation can provide useful information before assisted reproductive treatment and may help determine whether additional investigations or treatment are appropriate.

The possibility of improvement depends on the underlying cause. A fertility specialist can identify potentially treatable factors and recommend appropriate management.

Medical and reproductive health discussions should be conducted confidentially with the qualified healthcare professional managing the patient's care.

The cost varies depending on the consultation and investigations required. Current charges should be confirmed directly with the fertility clinic.

The specialist considers the patient's medical history, reproductive history, examination findings and investigation results before recommending an individualised care plan.

Sexually transmitted diseases, also called sexually transmitted infections, are infections that can be transmitted through sexual contact. Different infections can cause different symptoms and require different diagnostic tests and treatments.

Diagnosis depends on the suspected infection and may involve medical history, physical examination and laboratory testing using blood, urine or other appropriate samples.

Yes. Some sexually transmitted infections may not cause noticeable symptoms. A healthcare professional can advise whether testing is appropriate based on individual circumstances.

Possible symptoms can include unusual genital discharge, sores or ulcers, burning during urination, itching, irritation or genital and pelvic pain. These symptoms can also have causes other than STIs, so proper medical evaluation is important.

The test depends on the suspected infection. Depending on the clinical situation, testing may involve blood, urine, swab or other laboratory samples.

No. Different infections require different diagnostic approaches. The healthcare professional recommends the appropriate test based on symptoms, history and clinical findings.

Urine-based testing may be used for certain sexually transmitted infections. The appropriate sample depends on the suspected infection.

Yes. Swab-based samples may be used for certain infections depending on symptoms and the area being evaluated.

If a sexual partner has been diagnosed with an STI, it is important to seek medical advice about appropriate testing and management.

Some sexually transmitted infections, particularly when untreated, can affect reproductive health. Appropriate diagnosis and management are therefore important.

Treatment depends on the specific infection. A healthcare professional can recommend appropriate treatment after diagnosis.

It is possible for a person to have more than one infection. Depending on the clinical situation, the healthcare professional may recommend testing for multiple infections.

Sexual and reproductive health concerns should be discussed confidentially with a qualified healthcare professional. The clinic can explain its privacy and confidentiality practices.

Some STIs can be asymptomatic. Whether testing is appropriate depends on individual circumstances such as possible exposure and medical history.

No. Genital discharge can have several possible causes. Appropriate medical evaluation and testing are needed to determine the cause.

Burning during urination can occur with some sexually transmitted infections, but it can also have other causes. Medical evaluation is recommended to determine the cause.

The healthcare professional reviews the laboratory results and recommends appropriate treatment, further testing or follow-up depending on the findings.

Depending on the diagnosed infection and medical advice, partner testing or treatment may be recommended.

Certain untreated sexually transmitted infections can affect reproductive health. Timely diagnosis and appropriate management can help address the infection and reduce potential complications.

The cost depends on the consultation and the specific laboratory tests required. Current charges should be confirmed directly with the clinic.

ENANCE stands for Endoscopic and Andrology Centre of Excellence. It is a centre focused on gynecological endoscopic surgeries and male reproductive surgeries.

ENANCE provides advanced operative laparoscopic surgeries, advanced hysteroscopy procedures and advanced male infertility and andrology services.

The ENANCE information lists adhesiolysis, severe endometriosis surgery, adenomyoma resection, myomectomy, fistula repair, total laparoscopic hysterectomy, laparoscopic tubal recanalization, laparoscopic cystectomy and diagnostic laparoscopy with tubal patency testing.

The centre lists diagnostic hysteroscopy, polypectomy, uterine septum resection, uterine adhesiolysis, management of Asherman's syndrome and intrauterine PRP injection for persistently thin endometrium.

Yes. The centre provides advanced male infertility evaluation and treatment services including semen analysis, sperm retrieval, sperm selection, genetic testing, DNA fragmentation testing, fertility preservation and semen banking.

Yes. PESA and TESA are listed among the advanced surgical sperm retrieval procedures provided under male infertility services.

Yes. Micro-TESE is listed as an advanced surgical sperm retrieval procedure.

Yes. The information lists male karyotyping, Y chromosome microdeletion testing and sperm aneuploidy testing by FISH along with genetic counselling.

The ENANCE information lists DNA Fragmentation Index estimation using the Sperm SCD technique as part of male infertility evaluation.

Yes. The centre lists advanced sperm cryopreservation including rare sperm freezing, as well as fertility preservation and semen banking.

The ENANCE information describes advantages including smaller incisions, less scarring, less postoperative pain, faster recovery, shorter hospital stays, minimal blood loss, better visualization, improved cosmesis and reduced wound complications.

Yes. Laparoscopic surgery is a minimally invasive procedure performed through small keyhole-like incisions.

Yes. The centre states that laparoscopic surgeons and andrology specialists collaborate with pathology, imaging, blood bank, intensive care and physicians from various specialties.

The Patient First Policy focuses on individualized treatment plans, counselling, helping patients understand their diagnosis and treatment options, and maintaining an empathetic approach throughout care.

Yes. The centre states that it uses advanced endoscopy equipment and continuously upgrades its technology and surgical skills.

ENANCE provides services for patients requiring gynecological endoscopic evaluation or surgery and men requiring advanced infertility evaluation, sperm retrieval, sperm selection, genetic testing or fertility preservation.

Yes. Fertility preservation and semen banking are listed among the advanced male infertility services.

Yes. Intraovarian PRP injection for diminished ovarian reserve is listed among the advanced reproductive procedures.

Yes. The centre lists intrauterine PRP injection for persistently thin endometrium under advanced hysteroscopy services.

The information describes the services and treatment approach but does not provide a fixed procedure-wise price list in its main content. Current costs should be confirmed directly with the clinic.

CASA stands for Computer Assisted Semen Analysis. It studies recorded video images of sperm through a powerful microscope and analyzes the images using a high-speed computer system.

CASA is used to provide a detailed and standardized analysis of sperm motility and to reduce variables associated with manual microscopic semen analysis.

VCL stands for Curvilinear Velocity. It is the total distance the sperm moves in a time unit and is measured in µm/s.

VSL stands for Straight Line Velocity or progressive velocity. It is the distance the sperm moves along a straight line in a time unit, measured in µm/s.

VAP stands for Path Velocity. It represents the mathematically smoothed path along which the sperm moves in a unit of time.

ALH stands for Amplitude of Lateral Head Displacement and is expressed in µm.

The provided content states that manual semen analysis can vary between centers and may be time consuming and poorly reproducible. CASA helps standardize testing conditions and provides detailed motility parameters.

CASA may be recommended because it provides higher reliability, high precision, objective results and detailed sperm motility parameters useful in infertility evaluation.

Yes. The provided content describes semen analysis as the first step towards evaluating male infertility and CASA as an advanced diagnostic tool for detailed sperm analysis.

The cost of CASA testing can vary depending on the laboratory and individual diagnostic requirements. The current cost should be confirmed with the clinic.

Embryo donation is a process in which a couple receives embryos from the ART Bank.

Donor embryo may be recommended when both partners have issues that prevent them from producing eggs and sperm of their own, when there is a risk of passing on a genetic disorder, or in selected situations such as a single person who has gone through menopause.

According to the provided information, embryo donation is always anonymous. Donors and recipients do not know each other's identities.

The provided information states that with anonymous donation, no contact can be made between donor and recipient either now or in the future.

The embryo transfer during a donor embryo program is similar to an IVF embryo transfer. The doctor transfers one or two embryos into the uterus through the cervix using a thin catheter.

Usually no more than two embryos are transferred to reduce the risk of multiple pregnancy. Depending on the recipient's age and circumstances, the doctor may recommend transferring only one embryo.

The provided information states that donor embryos come from younger donors, with the female donor under 35 and the sperm donor under 45, and that younger embryos tend to be more viable.

The provided information states that success rates for donor embryos tend to be higher than traditional IVF because the donated eggs are from fertile women under 35 and sperm is from men aged 45 or under.

A pregnancy resulting from embryo donation has the same risks to the baby and recipient as any other pregnancy, with additional consideration of the recipient's age and medical conditions.

According to the provided information, conception through donor embryo costs approximately the same as IVF with Oocyte Donation. The current cost should be confirmed with the clinic.

Surrogacy is an arrangement in which a woman carries a pregnancy for intended parent or parents who are unable to carry a pregnancy themselves.

Surrogacy may be considered in certain medical situations where carrying a pregnancy is not possible or advisable. A qualified fertility specialist can evaluate whether it may be appropriate.

The process generally involves medical evaluation, fertility treatment, embryo preparation, embryo transfer and regular pregnancy monitoring.

The intended parents and surrogate undergo appropriate medical evaluation and the treatment cycle is planned according to individual requirements before embryo transfer.

Surrogacy involves medical and pregnancy-related risks. Appropriate screening, professional supervision and regular monitoring are important for safer care.

Pregnancy is monitored through regular consultations, appropriate investigations and ultrasound examinations as recommended by the treating doctor.

The timeline varies depending on medical evaluation, fertility treatment, embryo preparation, embryo transfer and pregnancy-related factors.

The cost can vary depending on fertility treatment, investigations, medicines, embryo-related procedures and pregnancy care. An exact estimate can be discussed after medical evaluation.

Surrogacy is not suitable for every individual or couple. Medical, legal and other eligibility requirements need to be evaluated before treatment.

Surrogacy involves fertility treatment and pregnancy care, so specialist medical guidance and appropriate monitoring are important throughout the treatment journey.

No. Growth of endometriosis is promoted by cyclic hormones and therefore it is generally seen during the reproductive age group.

Endometriosis is a common condition among women of reproductive age and is also frequently associated with infertility.

Symptoms may include pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, pain during urination or bowel movements and other discomfort depending on the location and severity of the condition.

Diagnosis may involve medical history, clinical examination and investigations. Ultrasound can identify some endometriotic ovarian cysts, while laparoscopy may be used in selected cases.

Endometriotic cysts can develop when endometriotic tissue involving the ovary undergoes repeated cyclic bleeding and accumulation of blood within the cyst.

According to recent guidelines mentioned in the provided content, CA-125 must not be used to diagnose or track the progress of endometriosis.

Yes. Endometriosis may affect fertility through changes in pelvic anatomy, adhesions, tubal function and ovarian reserve.

Endometriosis may affect ovarian function and ovarian reserve in some patients. Your fertility specialist can evaluate your individual situation before planning IVF.

Treatment depends on symptoms, severity, age, fertility plans and individual clinical factors. Options may include medicines and, in selected cases, surgery.

Surgery may help selected patients, particularly when symptoms are severe or large endometriotic cysts are present. The decision should be individualized.

Egg donation is a fertility treatment in which eggs from a suitable donor are retrieved and fertilized with sperm in the laboratory to create embryos for transfer to the recipient.

Donor eggs may be considered for women with reduced ovarian reserve, advanced maternal age, repeated IVF failure or certain genetic conditions.

The success rate depends on several individual and treatment-related factors including donor egg quality, embryo quality and recipient uterine health.

Egg donors undergo appropriate medical evaluation and screening before being considered for an egg donation program.

The donor egg retrieval and recipient's endometrial preparation are coordinated so that the resulting embryo can be transferred at the appropriate time.

Yes. Donor eggs can be fertilized with sperm through IVF laboratory procedures and the resulting embryo can be considered for embryo transfer.

IVF coverage depends on the individual health insurance policy. Some policies may provide fertility-related benefits, while others may exclude assisted reproductive treatments. The current policy terms should always be checked.

Review your policy documents and contact your insurance provider to confirm whether IVF or assisted reproductive treatment is covered and what conditions apply.

Some insurance policies may have a waiting period before fertility-related benefits become available. The applicable waiting period depends on the specific policy.

Coverage for IVF medicines depends on the specific insurance policy and its terms. Confirm the medicine-related benefits and exclusions with your insurer.

Whether fertility investigations are covered depends on the policy. It is important to check the inclusions and exclusions before treatment.

Some policies may have specific limits or sub-limits for fertility-related treatment. The exact limit depends on the policy.

Availability and terms of fertility-specific insurance products can change. Check current offerings and policy documents directly with the insurer before purchasing.

If IVF is not covered by insurance, you can discuss the expected treatment cost and available payment or financing options with your fertility clinic.

Ask about IVF coverage, eligibility, waiting periods, exclusions, coverage limits, medicines, investigations, hospitalisation and the claim process.

Start by understanding the expected treatment expenses, checking your insurance coverage and discussing available payment or financing options with the clinic.

PRP stands for Platelet-Rich-Plasma. It is prepared from the patient's own blood and contains a higher concentration of platelets than normal plasma.

PRP Therapy has been tried for conditions such as persistently thin endometrium, recurrent implantation failure and premature ovarian failure.

Around 10 to 15 ml of blood is drawn and processed using centrifugation to isolate and prepare platelet-rich plasma.

According to the provided content, trained laboratory technicians can prepare PRP samples as part of comprehensive care.

Prepared PRP is loaded into an IUI catheter and infused into the endometrial cavity under ultrasound guidance.

The provided content states that PRP therapy should be tried in recurrent IVF/ICSI failures when thin endometrium is persistently noted or endometrial blood flow is sub-optimal.

The PRP sample is prepared from the patient's own blood, so the provided content describes the risk of infection, cross contamination and immunogenic reaction as negligible.

According to the provided content, endometrial scratching may be reserved for selected patients and may be combined with PRP in certain IVF or IUI cycles.

It is described as an outpatient procedure similar to an endometrial biopsy or PRP. It may cause slight pain or discomfort.

The cost may vary depending on the individual treatment plan and clinical requirements.

Hormone tests do not always require fasting, but some tests may have specific preparation requirements. Speak with your fertility specialist or laboratory before the test to confirm whether fasting is necessary.

Most hormone blood test results are available within a short period, although the exact time can vary depending on the specific test and laboratory. Your doctor can explain when your results are expected.

Yes. Some hormone tests are best performed on specific days of the menstrual cycle because hormone levels naturally change throughout the cycle. Your fertility specialist will advise you about the appropriate day for each test.

Hormone levels can vary depending on the menstrual cycle, age and individual circumstances. Your doctor will interpret your results according to your clinical history, the timing of the test and the laboratory reference range.

Normal hormone ranges vary depending on the specific hormone, age, menstrual cycle phase and laboratory reference range. Your doctor will explain what your individual results mean.

The cost of Female Fertility Hormone Evaluation can vary depending on the number and type of hormone tests recommended. Please contact the clinic for current test packages and pricing.

Depending on the individual's fertility assessment, doctors may evaluate hormones such as FSH, LH, Estradiol, Progesterone, AMH, Prolactin and thyroid-related hormones.

Hormone tests provide useful information about ovulation, ovarian function, ovarian reserve and other hormonal factors that may influence conception. The results can help specialists plan appropriate fertility treatment.